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MLT MCQS 4000,LAB TECHNICIAN MCQS PART 1,

MEDICAL LAB TECHNOLGIST 4000 MCQ


Q 1 - Identify correct statement regarding Robert Koch
A. He is known as father of bacteriology
B the causative organism of cholera, Vibrio cholera was
identified by him
C. He discovered hypersensitivity phenomenon
D. All the above
ANSWER - D
Q2-Father of antiseptic surgery is
A Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Koch
C. Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
D. Lister
ANSWER - D
Q3- which among the following is a contribution by Louis Pasteurin the field of microbiology?
A Techniques of Pasteurization
B. Process of Fermentation
c. Rabies, cholera and anthrax vaccine
D. All the above
ANSWER - D

Q 5 - Mycobacterium leprae is also known as ...............
A. Golden bacilli B. Koch's bacillus
C. Magical bacilli D. Hansen's bacilli

ANSWER - D

Q6- Drug of choice to treat leprosy is .........
A Rifampicin
B. Acyclovir
C. Zidovudine
D. Dapsone
ANSWER - D

Q7 - Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also known as
A Golden bacilli
B. Koch's bacillus
C. Magical bacilli
D. Hansen's bacilli
ANSWER - B

Q 8 -Correct statement regarding microscope is.......
A Electrons are used as a source of illumination in Electron
microscope
B. Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek developed microscope first
time
C. Knoll & Ruska developed electron microscope
D. All the above

ANSWER - D

Q8 - All of the following are acid-fast organisms EXCEPT
A Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Nocardia
C. Isospora belli
D. Staphylococcus
ANSWER - D

9. Bacterial structure involved in respiration is
A Ribosome
B. Pili
C. Mesosome
D. Flagella

ANSWER - C
10. Identify correct statement regarding bacteria
A. Respiration, cell division and sporulation are the
functions of mesosome in bacteria
B. Capsule in bacteris enables adherence to surface and
protection against phagocytosis
C. Heterotrophs are the bacteria that are unable to
Synthesize their own food materials
D. All the above


ANSWER - D

Q11 -Correct regarding cocci are .............
A Cocci are spherical shaped bacteria
B. Cocci present in chain is known as streptococci
C. Cocci present in the shape of grapes is known as
staphylococci
D. All the above
ANSWER - D
12. Coma shaped bacteria are known as
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Vibrio
D. Bacillus

ANSWER – C
13. Which of the following is most resistant to sterilization?
A Tubercle bacilli B. Viruses
C. Spores
D. Prions

ANSWER - D
14. Endoscope is sterilized by:
A Glutaraldehyde
B. Formaldehyde
C. Atuoclaving
D. Hot ait oven
ANSWER - A
16. Recommended transport medium for stool specimen
suspected a contain VibrioCholerae is:
A Buffered glycerol saline medium
B. Venkatraman-Ramakrishanan medium
C. Nutrient broth
D. Boood agar
ANSWER - A

17. Which is an enriched media?
A Selenite F broth
B. Peptone water
C. MacConkey agar
D. Chocolate agar
ANSWER - B

18. Which of the following factor does not affect microbial
growth?(RPSC Nsg Tutor 2009)
A Moisture
B. Disinfection
C Darkness
D. Temperature
ANSWER - C
19. Agar concentration required to prepare nutrient agar is:
A 1-2%
B. 4-6%
C. 0.25-0.5%
D. 0.5-1%
ANSWER - A

20. HIV is a
A. Retrovirus
B. DNA virus
C. Fungus
D Bacteria
ANSWER – A

21. MRSA is mediated due to
A Plasmid
B. Chromosome
C. Transposons
D. None

ANSWER – B

22. All of the following are vector bone diseases except
A. Malaria
8. Filariasis
C. Rubella
D. Chagas disease

ANSWER – C
23. Primary immune response the correct statement is:
A Involves IgG
B. Antibody producing cells. Memory B cell
C. No lag period
D. Slow and sluggish

ANSWER – D

24- Which of the following infectious agents can be transmitted
through blood transfusion?
A HIV
B. Treponemapallidum
C. Toxoplasmagondi
D. All of the above


ANSWER – D

25- which one of the following is post streptococcal sequelae:
A Acute rheumatic fever
Cellulitis
cPharyngitis
D impetigo


ANSWER – A


26. A positive tuberculin test is indicated by and area of
induration of:
A.  <5mm in diameter
B.   B. 6-9 mm in diameter
C.> 10 mm in diameter
D.Noinduration
ANSWER – C

27. Diagnostic test used for typhoid fever is
A Blood culture
B. Dick Test
C. shick test
D. Widal test

ANSWER – D

27. Diagnostic test used for diphtheria is
A Blood culture
B. Dick Test
C. Shick test
D. Widal test
ANSWER – C



29. Diagnostic test used for TB is.....
A Mantoux test
B. Dick Test
C hick test
D.Widal test
ANSWER – A


30. Diagnostic test used for scarlet fever is ....
A.Mantoux test
B. Dick Test
C. shick test
D.  Widal test
ANSWER – B

31. Diagnostic test used for typhus fever is
Mantoux test
B. Dick Test
C shick test
D.  Weil Felix

ANSWER – D

32. Route of injecting shick test toxin/ purified protein derivative(mauntox test) is ............
A Intra vascular
B. Intra dermal
C intra muscular
D Subcutaneous
ANSWER – B
33. Site for injecting shick test toxin/ purified protein derivative
mauntox test) is ...
A Right upper arm
B Left upper arm
C. Left fore arm
D.Right forearm

ANSWER – C

34. Most accurate method of diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori is:
A Culture
B. Biopsy urease test
C. Histopathology
D. Urea breath test

ANSWER – D


35. All of the following viruses are transmitted by respiratory
route except:
A influenza virus
B Rota virus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Rhinovirus
ANSWER – B

36. Acid fast staining is used to detect
A. Mycobacterium TB
B Ctetani
C HIV/AIDS
D.  Meningococci
ANSWER – A

37. During the window period of patient with AIDS, best
diagnostic test is:
A. ELISA
B. Western Blot
C. Rapid test
D. RT-PCR
ANSWER – D

38. Best indicator of HIV prognosis
A CD4T cell count
B. CD8 T cell count
C. HIV RNA
D ELIS
ANSWER – A

39. Most effective mode of transmission of HIV:
A. Sexual
B. Blood product
C. Needle/syringe
D Mother of fetus

ANSWER – B

40. Most common malignancy in AIDS is;
A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. B-cell lymphoma
C. Leukemia
D. Burkitt's lymphoma
ANSWER – A

41- Food poison is caused by ..
A Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium botulism
C. Corynebacteriumdiphtherae
D. Clostridium tetani

ANSWER – B
42 -Which of the following is used for sterilization of ystoscopesendoscopes and bronchoscopes?
A Gluteraldehyde
3. Ethanol
C Methanol
D Ethylene oxide

ANSWER – A


43. Method of sterilization used for culture media is...
A Autoclave
B. Hot air oven
C. Pasteurization
D. None of the above


ANSWER – A



44. Which of the following is LIVE ATTENUATED VACCINE?
A BCG vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C Diphtheria toxoid
D.Tetanustoxoid


ANSWER – A

45- Which of the following single dose is sufficient for
immunization
A Live attenuated vaccine
B Killed vaccine
C. Taxoids
D. None of the above



ANSWER – A

46- The method of killing of all microorganisms including their
spores is known as
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C.  incineration
D. Lysis


ANSWER – A

47. The method of reducing the number of pathogens from anyarticle, surface or medium is called as
A Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Incineration
D. lysis

ANSWER – B


48. The causative agent of Tuberculosis (T.B.) is
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Treponemapallidum
D. Borrelia species

ANSWER – A

49. The causative agent of Syphilis is
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Treponemapallidum
D. Borrelia species


ANSWER – C

50. VDRL test is used for the diagnosis of
A. Syphilis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Pneumonia
D. AIDS


ANSWER – A

51. Which of the following is moist heat method ofsterilization?
A. Boiling
B. Autoclaving
C. Hot air oven
D. Both a &b

ANSWER – D

52. Temperature range used for autoclaving is....
A. 100°C for 10 min
B. 100°C for 30 min
C. 121°C for 15 min
D. 121°C for 30 min


ANSWER – C

53. ELISA is used for the diagnosis of
A. AIDS
B. Night blindness
C. Sickle cell anaemia
D. All of the above

  
ANSWER – A

54. Name the first organic acid produced by microbial
fermentation.
A. Acetic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Butyric acid
D. None of the above


ANSWER – B

: 55. The most common viral cause of gastroenteritis:
A Rotavirus
B. Norwalk virus
C. Adenovinis
D. Hepadnavirus

ANSWER – A

56. All are true about SARS EXCEPT:
A Epidemic is seen in India
B. Spreads by droplet
C Diagnosed by PCR
D.Caused by a type of coronavirus

ANSWER – A


57. Perinatal Hepatitis B transmission is maximum in
A 1" trimester
B. 2-trimester
C. 3 trimester
D.During delivery

ANSWER – D


58. Which Hepatitis virus is associated with highest mortality in pregnancy?
A Hepatitis A
B Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis E

ANSWER – D

59. Hepatitis virus that spreads by fecal-oral route:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Hepatitis D

ANSWER – A

60. Acute hepatitis B infection is best diagnosed by:
A HBsAg
B HBeAg
C. IgM Anti HBc antobody
D.HBcAg

ANSWER – C

61. Which parameter is not included in HAI surveillance?
A CA-UTI (catheter associated urinary tract infection)
B. CLABSI (central line associated bloodstream infection)
C. VAP (ventilator associated pneumonia)
D. Open wound infections

ANSWER – D

62. Hand rub should not be used in which condition?
A. Before touching patient
B. After touching patient
C. After touching patient's surrounding
D. Hands are visibly soiled

ANSWER – D

63. How many moments of hand hygiene have been laid down
by WHO?
A. 5
B. 6
C 7
D.8

ANSWER – A


 64. Which antibody crosses placenta?
B IgG
A. IGA
C. IgE
D. IgM

ANSWER – B

65. Which is an example of surface lg?
A IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D.        IgM

ANSWER – A

66. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
A IgA
B. IgG
C IgM
D IgE

ANSWER – D

67. Wheal and flare is which type of hypersensitivity reaction:
A Type I
B Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type V

ANSWER – A


68. Type I hypersensitivity includes all of the following except:
A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Extrinsic asthma
D. Hay fever

ANSWER – A

69. A positive tuberculin test is an example of:
A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type Il hypersensitivity
C. Type IlI hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

ANSWER – D

70. Application of skin graft for the second time from the same donor will result in:
A. First set rejection
B. Second set rejection
C. Both
D. None

ANSWER – B



71. Transplantation between members with same genetic
constitution is known as:
A Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft

ANSWER – B

72. All of the following are live-attenuated vaccines except:
A MMR
B. Yellow fever 17D vaccine
C. Salk polio vaccine
D. Sabin polio vaccine

ANSWER – C


73 : Amphitrichous flagella means
Flagella all-round the cell
Flagella at both ends
Flagella at one end
D. Flagella in tufts

ANSWER – B

74: When Flagella is present all around the cell it is called
A Amphitrichous
B. Monotrichous
C Peritrichous
D. Lopotrichous

ANSWER – C

75: India ink is used to demonstrate the following part of bacteria
A. Cell wall
B. Nucleus
C. Capsule
D. Flagella

ANSWER – C

76. Reflected light is used in
A. Light microscope
B. Phase contrast microscope
C. Darkfield microscope
D. Electron microscope

ANSWER – C

77 . Bacteria that grow between 25 to 40'C are
A Capnophilic
B. Psychrophilic
C Thermophilic
D. Mesophilic

ANSWER – D

78 . Shape of cocci
A Rod
8. Spherical
C. Comma
D. Spiral

ANSWER – B

79. Best way of sterilizing disposable plastic syringes is:
I wove 2 & 3)
A. UV rays
B.Autoclave
C. Gamma rays
D.Hot air oven

ANSWER – C

80. . The most suitable disinfectant for decontamination of HIV contaminated endoscope is (MAH19)
A 1% sodium hypochlorite
B. 2% glutaraldehyde
C 5% phenol
D. 70% ethanol

ANSWER – B

81- . Flexible fibre optic endoscopes are sterilized by
A. Autoclave
B. Cetrimide
C. 2% glutaraldehyde
 D. Gamma-radiation

ANSWER – C

82- . Which of the following organism can survive pasteurization by Holder method?
A Mycobacterium
B. Brucella
D. Coxiella burnetii
C. Salmonella

ANSWER – D

83 . Temperature and duration for flash process of Pasteurization
A 77" for 20 seconds
B 100°C for 20 seconds
C. 63°C for 20 seconds
D. 63C for 30 minutes

ANSWER – A

84 . Sterilization of heat labile media is done by
A. Filtration
B. Pasteurization
C. Autoclaving
D. Tyndalization
  – D

85 . Immunoglobulin that is inactivated at high temperature
A   IgG
B   IgA
с   Igм
D  IgE

ANSWER – D

86. Immunoglobulins are
A. Glycolipids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Polypeptides
D. Proteoglycans

ANSWER – B


87. Exotoxins are usually
A. Protein
B. Heat labile
C. More antigenic
D. Non-enzymatic

ANSWER – A

88. True about exotoxins
A. Produced only by gram positive bacteria
B. Neutralized by antitoxin
C. Less potent than endotoxin
D. Pyrogenic

ANSWER – B

89. The function of an adjuvant in a vaccine is to enhance its:
A. Distribution
B immunogenicity
C. Absorption
D. Shelf life

ANSWER – B

90. The Immunity resulting in the infant, as a result of
immunization of a pregnant woman with tetanus tosold is
called
A. innate immunity
B. Natural active immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Natural passive immunity


ANSWER – D

91. Anti-D given to a Rh negative pregnant woman with Rh-
positive fetus, before delivery is an example of
A. Artificial active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. Natural passive immunity
D. Adoptive immunity

ANSWER – B


92: Gram-positive bacterials which is usually sensitive to
penicilinis
A.. Staphylococcus aureus
B.Enterococcus faecalis
C.Streptococcus pyogenes
D.Staphylococcus epidermidis

ANSWER – C

93-  Streptococ causing neonatal meningitis
A Group-A
B. Group-B
C Group-C
D Group-D

ANSWER – B

94 . Which of the following gram positive bacteria is responsible for food poisoning?
A. Mycoplasmas
B. Pseudomonas
C. Clostridia
D. All of the above

ANSWER – C

95- . Methicillin resistance bacteria are
A Streptococci
B. Pseudomonas
C. Haemophilus
D. Staphylococci

ANSWER – D

96-  The organism causing UTI in sexually active women
A.  Staphylococcus aureus
B.Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus viridians

ANSWER – C

97- . Antibiotic used in Toxic shock syndrome
A. Vancomycin
B.Cephalosporins
C. Streptomycin
D. Clindamycin

ANSWER – D

98 . Grave's disease belongs to
A Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type Il hypersensitivity
C Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

ANSWER – B

99. Type of hypersensitivity involved in Rh incompatibility
A Type I hypersensitivity
B Type Il hypersensitivity
C Type Ill hypersensitivity
D Type IV hypersensitivity

ANSWER – B

100. Chemically an antigen may be
A Lipid
B. Polysaccharide
C Protein
D. Any of the above

ANSWER – D

101. Example of cell mediated hypersensitivity
A Transfusion reactions
B.Arthus reactions
C. Type Il lepra reaction
D. Tuberculin test

ANSWER – D

102. Tuberculin test is an example of
A Type hypersensitivity
B. Type Ilhypersensitivity
C Type Ill hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity

ANSWER – D

103. Organism that has considerable resistance to antiseptics
disinfectants and antibiotics
A E.coli
B. Pseudomonas
c. Staphylococci
D. Streptococci

ANSWER – A

104. Endocarditis in a patient with colon cancer is caused by
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus bovis
C. Streptococcus sanguis
D. Streptococcus mutans

ANSWER – B

105 . Which is a lactose fermenter?
A. Pseudomonas
B.Salmonella
C. Klebsiella
D. Shigella

ANSWER – C

106 . Rice water stool is associated with? DNB 2015
A. Cholera
B. Bacillary dysentery
C. Salmonella infection
D. Pseudomembranous colitis

ANSWER – A

107. Bacteria associated with dental caries
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus faecalis
D. Streptococcus agalactiae

ANSWER – A

108 . Dose of human teanus Ig for post exposure prophylaxis
A. 250-500 units
B. 500-750 units
C. 750-1000 units
D. 1000-1200 units

ANSWER – A
109. Most important cause of traveler's diarrhea is
A Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
B. Enteroinvasive E.coli
C. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
D. Enteropathogenic E.coli

ANSWER – A

110 . Smallest virus is: (wave)
A Pox virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Parvo virus
D. Adeno virus

ANSWER – C

111-  incubation period of measles
A. 1-2 days
B. 3-6 days
C. 1-7 days
D. 9 - 11 days

ANSWER – D

112. Dengue is caused by
A. Alphavirus
B. Bunyavirus
C Flavivirus
D. Hantavirus

ANSWER – C
113. Yellow fever is caused by
A Flavivirus
B Alphavirus
C Calcivirus
D. Bunyavirus
ANSWER – A

114. Infective period of Aedes mosquitoes in dengue
A 1-2 days
B-10 days
C.- Till next bite
D- Till death
ANSWER – D

115. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
A Louse
B. Trombiculid mite
C. Rat fles
D. Soft tick
ANSWER – B

116. Tinea pedis is casued by
A. E floccosum
B.T rubrum
C. Microsporum
D. T schoenleinii

ANSWER – B

117. Tenia pedia is seen among
A. People of cold countries
B. Those wearings socks and shoes
C. Those walking barefoot
D. Hospitalized peope

ANSWER – B

118. Chances of perinatal HIV infectin to the baby
A 0.5-1%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 90%

ANSWER – B

119. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of
A. Syphilis
B. HIV
C. Typhoid
D. Tuberculosis
ANSWER – A
120. Incubation period for primary syphilis
A 1-2 days
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 3 months
ANSWER – C

121. Jarisch-Harxheimer reaction is common in
A Congenital syphilis
B. Primary syphilis
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Tertiary syphilis

ANSWER – B
122. Lyme disease is caused by
A Borrelia vincenti
B. Borrelia burgdoferi
C. Borrelia recurrentis
D. Leptospira interrogans

ANSWER – B
123. SARS virus is a
A. Coronavirus
B. Lentivirus
C. Calcivirus
D. Arenavirus

ANSWER – A

124- Which one of the following agent can be used to
malaria?
A Chloroquine
B. Albendazole
C. Attenuated vaccine
D Chloramphenice

ANSWER – A

125 . Range of incubation period in typhoid
A 3-21 days
B 10- 30 Day
C 1 - 3 months
D. 3-6 months

ANSWER – A

126. Route of administration of influenza vaccine
A. Intradermal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Per oral
D. intranasal

ANSWER – D

127. Incubation period for influenza pandemic H1N1
A. 12-24 hours
B. 1-3 days
C. 1 - 7 days
D. 5-10 day

ANSWER – C

128. Incubation period of mumps
A. 1-7 days
7-14 days
C 12-24 days
D. 21-28 days

ANSWER – C

129. Who discovered Oral polio vaccine which is used now-a-das
Α. Καρrowsky
В. СоX
C. Salk
D. Sabin

ANSWER – D

130. Usual dose of purified protein derivative in Mantoux testis
A- 5 IU
B.- 50 IU
C-100 IU
D -500IU

ANSWER – A

131. Corneal beading is a complication of
A. Leprosy
B AIDS
C. Herpes simplex keratitis
D. Acanthamoeba keratitis

ANSWER – A

132. Most common site of extrathoracic TB in children
A Lymph node
B. Skeleton
C. Central nervous system
D. Heart
ANSWER – A

133. Mantoux +ve is induration measuring
A 10mm
B. 6-9mm
C. <5mm
D. >20mm
ANSWER – A
134. The botulism intoxication occurs due to
A. An endotoxin
B. An exotoxin
C. Neurotoxin
D. Mycotoxin
ANSWER – C


Question135:-Aorta arises from
 A:-Right atrium
 B:-Left atrium
 C:-Right ventricle
 D:-Left ventricle
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

136:-The protein portion of the enzyme is
 A:-Apoenzyme
 B:-Prosthetic group
 C:-Co-factor
 D:-Coenzyme
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

137:-Which of the following cells is not a WBC ?
 A:-Neutrophil
 B:-Basophil
 C:-Manocyte
 D:-Thrombocyte
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

138:-The colouring agent used in antisera AB is
 A:-Methelene blue
 B:-Acriflavin
 C:-Eosin
 D:-Safranin
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

139:-Name the anticoagulant present in purple coloured vacutainer tube
 A:-Heparin
 B:-EDTA
 C:-Sodium citrate
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

140:-pH of buffered distilled water used in Leishman's staining is
 A:-6.8
 B:-7.2
 C:-7.4
 D:-8
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

141:-Blood collected in CPD-A can be stored in blood bank refrigerator for ______ days.
 A:-35
 B:-28
 C:-21
 D:-25
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

142:-HDN due to Rh incompatibility can be prevented by giving anti-D antibody to Rh negative mother within
________ hours of delivery of Rh positive infant.
 A:-48 hrs
 B:-72 hrs
 C:-24 hrs
 D:-36 hrs
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

143:-Which of the following is not an RBC diluting fluid ?
 A:-Normal saline
B:-Dacies fluid
 C:-Turkes fluid
 D:-Toissons fluid
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

144:-During donor screening persons having history of malaria should be avoided for a period of _______________
years.
 A:-1 week
 B:-2 years
 C:-1 year
 D:-3 years
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

145:-Bombay blood group persons have _________ antigen in their blood.
 A:-A Ag
 B:-B Ag
 C:-h Ag
 D:-H Ag
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

146:-Depth of improved neubauer counting chamber is
 A:-0.1 mm
 B:-.01 mm
 C:-.001 mm
 D:-1 mm
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

147:-Name the enzyme estimation done in semen sample to analyse the secretory function of prostate
 A:-alanine transaminase
 B:-asparte transaminase
 C:-acid phosphatase
 D:-alkaline phasphatase
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

Q148:-The only cell in normal CSF is
 A:-Neutrophil
 B:-Lymphocyte
 C:-Manocyte
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

Q149:-Name the tests used to detect bile salt in urine.
 A:-Benzidine test
 B:-Fouchet's test
 C:-Ehrlich's test
 D:-Hays test
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

150:-Ketone bodies in urine are
 A:-acetone
 B:-`beta` hydroxy butyric acid
 C:-Both 1 and 2
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

151:-Normal sperm count is
 A:-80 - 160 millions / ml
 B:-40 - 80 millions / ml
 C:-100 - 120 millions / ml
 D:-140 - 200 millions / ml
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

152:-Name the hormone detected in pregnancy.
 A:-ADH
 B:-GH
 C:-TSH
 D:-hCG
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

153:-Specific gravity of urine less than 1.010 indicates
 A:-Diabetes millitus
 B:-Diabetes insipidus
 C:-Diabetic ketoacidosis
 D:-None of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

154:-'Glucose memory test' is
 A:-GCT
 B:-Hb`A_1` C
 C:-GTT
 D:-PPBS
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

155:-Which of the following is not a renal function test ?
 A:-Serum urea
 B:-Serum creatinine
 C:-Cystatin - C
 D:-Total cholesterol
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

156:-Who is known as 'father of microbiology' ?
 A:-Louis Pasteur
 B:-Robert Koch
 C:-Alexander Fleming
 D:-Edward Jenner
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

157:-Serum electrolytes are analysed using
 A:-Calorimeter
 B:-Flamephotometer
 C:-Spectrophotometer
 D:-None of these
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

158:-Van-den-Bergh reaction is used to detect
 A:-Serum creatinine
 B:-Serum urea
 C:-Serum bilirubin
 D:-Blood glucose
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

159:-Cob-Web appearance of clot in CSF indicates
 A:-Jaundice
 B:-Haemorrhage
 C:-Spinal constriction
 D:-Tuberculous meningitis
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

160:-_____________ is otherwise known as 'bad cholesterol'.
 A:-LDL
 B:-HDL
 C:-VLDL
 D:-Chylomicrons
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

161:-All the following are motile bacteria except
 A:-E.Coli
 B:-Klebsiella
 C:-Vibrio
 D:-Proteus
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

162:-Oils and grease can be sterilised using
 A:-autoclave
 B:-vaccine bath
 C:-hot air oven
 D:-none of these
Correct Answer:- Option-C

163:-Solidifying agent of a culture media is
 A:-peptone
 B:-meat extract
 C:-sodium chloride
 D:-agar
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

164:-______________ is added to Mac Conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria.
 A:-Bile salt
 B:-Peptone
 C:-Neutral red
 D:-Agar
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

165:-All the following are examples of transport media except
 A:-VR medium
 B:-Thioglycollate medium
 C:-Stuarts medium
 D:-Amies medium
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

166:-Which of the following tests come under IMViC tests ?
 A:-Coagulase test
 B:-Catalase test
 C:-Citrate utilisation test
 D:-None of above

 Correct Answer:- Option-C

167:-The type of immunoglobulin which provides local immunity is
 A:-`I_g` M
 B:-`I_g` D
 C:-`I_g` G
 D:-`I_g` A
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

168:-Confirmatory tests for AIDs is
 A:-Western blot
 B:-Southern blot
 C:-ELISA
 D:-CLIA
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

169:-The bacteria which require 'X' and 'V' factors for its growth is
 A:-staphylococcus
 B:-haemophilus
 C:-brucella
 D:-salmonella
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

170:-RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of
 A:-AIDs
 B:-Hepatitis
 C:-Syphilis
 D:-Malaria
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

171:-All the following are examples of blood parasites except
 A:-Plasmodium
 B:-Brugia malayi
 C:-Leishmania
 D:-Giardia lamblia
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

172:-The fixative used for blood containing specimen is
 A:-Carnoy's fluid
 B:-95% ethyl alcohol
 C:-10% formalin
D:-Zenker's fluid
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

173:-Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is
 A:-Pap stain
 B:-Shorrs stain
 C:-H & E stain
 D:-JSB stain
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

174:-The 'word' which refers to the 'closeness of a result on repeated analysis' is
 A:-accuracy
 B:-sensitivity
 C:-precision
 D:-specificity
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

175:-'Mycology' means the study of
 A:-bacteria
 B:-immunity
 C:-parasites
 D:-fungus

 Correct Answer:- Option-D

176:-Infections induced by a 'physician' is known as
 A:-iatrogenic
 B:-nosocomial
 C:-congenital
 D:-subclinical
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

177:-The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis
 A:-acid phosphatase
 B:-amylase
 C:-alkaline phosphatase
 D:-creatinine kinase
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

178:-The basic component of Leishman's stain is
 A:-cosin
 B:-malachite green
 C:-methelene blue
 D:-none of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

179:-Name the blood cells increased in asthma
 A:-basophil
 B:-neutrophil
 C:-lymphocyte
 D:-cosinophil
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

180:-Intermediate host of plasmodium is
 A:-man
 B:-female anopheles mosquito
 C:-male anopheles mosquito
 D:-none of the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

181:-Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain
 A:-Leishmans stain
 B:-Giemsas stain
 C:-Jenners stain
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-D

182:-In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio
 A:-2 : 3
 B:-3 : 2
C:-1 : 4
 D:-2 : 1
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

183:-The anticoagulant used in OFT is
 A:-EDTA
 B:-Citrate
 C:-Heparin
 D:-Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

184:-The bacteria showing swarming growth is
 A:-E.coli
 B:-Salmonella
 C:-Proteus
 D:-All the above
 Correct Answer:- Option-C

185:-To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in
 A:-KOH
 B:-`NH_4OH`
 C:-INHCl
 D:-3% acetic acid
 Correct Answer:- Option-A

186:-Incomplete antibodies are detected using
 A:-Electrophoresis
 B:-Coombs test
 C:-Agglutination test
 D:-VDRL test
 Correct Answer:- Option-B

📚187. Van den Bergh Reaction is use to detect ?
Ans👉 Serum Bilirubin

📚188. Tuberculous Meningitis which test indicates ?
Ans👉 cob-web- Appearance of clot.

📚189. Who is bad Cholestrol.?
Ans👉 LDL

📚190. Which is add mac conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria?
Ans👉 Bile Salt

📚191. Confirmatory Test for Aids?
Ans👉 western Blot test.

📚192. The Fixative use for blood containing specimen is ?
Ans👉 Cornoy's Fluid

📚193. Mycology Means Study of -?
Ans- Fungus

📚194. The basic component of Leishman's Stain is -
Ans👉 methelene Blue.

📚195. The Anticoagulant use in OFT is?
Ans👉 Heparin

📚196. To remove blood clots from blood pipetts it is immersed in 🤔
Ans👉 KOH

📚197. In complete Antibody are detected using. ?
Ans👉 Coombs Test.

📚198. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also known as-
Ans- Koch's Bacillus

 📚199. mycobacterium Leprae is is also known as -
Ans- hensen's bacillus

📚200. Diagnostic test use for diphtheria is -
Ans↔ Shick test
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