Hematomy for All medical Studend Multiple Choice Questions with Answer free pdf download

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Hematomy for All medical Studend Multiple
Choice Questions with Answer😊🙏➡

1. Causes spurious decrease in MCV

A. Cryofibrinogen
B. hyperglycemia
C. autoaggutination
D. high WBC ct
E. reduced red cell deformability
Ans: A

2. When the entire CBC is
suppressed due to either anemia,
infection, or hemorrhage is called?

A. Erythroplasia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Pancytopenia
D. Leukopenia
Ans: C

3. Total RBC count for Women is?

A. 4.4-6
B. 4.2-5
C. 4.0-5.0
D. 4.2-5.2
Ans: C

4. Total RBC for men?

A. 4.0-5.0
B. 4.6-6.0
C. 4.2-6.5
D. 4.0-6.0
Ans: B

5. What is the major metabolically
available storage form of  iron in the

A. Hemosiderin
B. Ferritin
C. Transferrin
D. Hemoglobin
Ans: B

6. The best source of active bone
marrow from a 20-year old would be:
A. Iliac Crest (hip)
B. Femur (thigh)
C. Distal radius (forearm)
D. Tibia (shin)
Ans: A

7. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices:
Determination of relative size of RBC.
82-98 f1

Ans: B

8. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices:
Measurement of average weight of
Hb/RBC. 27-33 pg

Ans: B

9. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices:
Evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb.

Ans: C

10. There are 3 classifications of

Anemia. What are they?

A. In adequate production of Hb
B. Decreased RBC production
C. Increased Erythrocyte destruction
D. Blood loss
Ans: A

11. What is the major metabolically
available storage form of iron in the

A. Hemosiderin
B. Ferritin
C. Transferrin
D. Hemoglobin
Ans: B

12. Folic acid therapy can cause sickle
cell anemia

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

14. Hydroxyurea increases hemoglobin
production and decreases reticulocyte

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

15. Hydroxyurea:

A. decreases nitric oxide
B. increases neutrophil and monocytes
C. inhibits DNA synthesis by acting as a
ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor
Ans: C

16. Hydroxyurea icreases thhe serum
uric acid levels.

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

17. Decitabine increases the fetal
hemoglobin production by inducing
methylation of DNA and thus prevents
the switch from gamma to beta-globin

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

18. Hypocupremia is seen in

A. osetoporosis, nephrotic disease
B. sprue, cliac disease
C. cardiovascular disease, colon cancer
D. A andB
E. B and C
F. All of the above
Ans: F

19. Wilsons disease can cause liver


A. True
B. False
Ans: A

20. What are the treatment options forr
wilson's disease?

A. Pencillamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Trientine
D. Potassium disulfide
E. Zinc
F. A, B and C
G. A, C, and D
H. A, C, D, and E
Ans: H

21. Aplasia can occur because of
riboflavin deficiency?

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

22. Angular stomatitis.cheilosis is a
symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

23. What is the major metabolically
available storage form of iron in the

A. Hemosiderin
B. Ferritin
C. Transferrin
D. Hemoglobin
Ans: B

24. Which test can be used to detect

hemolytic anemia?

A. Coombs test
B. Genetic testing
C. Peripheral blood smear (PBS)
D. Schilling test
Ans: A

25. Which anemia is classified as not
being able to use iron properly to
synthesize hemoglobin because of a
inherited cause.

A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. hypochromic anemia
C. aplastic anemia
Ans: B

26. what is normal fasting Blood sugar,
A. 100-200
B. 70-110
C. 90_120
D None
Ans.. B

27. This fatal disorder results from
clot/thrombus formation in the blood

A. thromboembolism
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. All of the above
Ans: E

28. Homan's sign is classified as pain
behind the knee

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

29. Patients that are sensitive to aspirin
can take

A. Sulfinpyrazone
B. Clopidogrel
C. Ticlopidine
D. 1 and 2
E. 2 and 3
Ans: E

30. What is the life span of RBC

A. 120
B. 100
C. 200
D. 80
Ans: A

31. What is the major metabolically
available storage form of iron in the

A. Hemosiderin
B. Ferritin
C. Transferrin
D. Hemoglobin
Ans: B

34. Warfarin should be used with

caution in the following:

A. Alcoholic liver disease
B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
C. recent neurosugery
D. Liver impairment
Ans: D

35. Isozymes of 2C can greatly effect

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

36. absolute lymphocytosis
5000/mm^3) without adenopathy,
hepatosplenomegaly, anemia,
thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL
prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IV
Ans: A

37. Conventional treatment is
Rai stage II for

A. Antibiotics
B. chemotherapy
C. Antivirals
D. rest
Ans: B

38. In patients with low numbers of
neoplastic cells, sometimes due to
treatment, PCR to amplify DNA can
improve sensitivity, and detect signs of

A. True
B. False
Ans: A

39. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is
most common leukemia in what kind of
people? Slide 4

A. young adults
B. older adults
Ans: B

40. absolute lymphocytosis and
thrombocytopenia( < 100,000/mm^3)
with or without lymphadenopathy,
hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or
anemia is what stage in CLL prognosis
Scoring-Rai Staging System?

A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage III
E. Stage IVN
Ans: E

Objective type Questions
with Answers

41. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is
characterized by peripheral blood and
bone marrow

A. lymphocytopenia
B. lymphocytosis
Ans: B

44. absolute lymphocytosis with either
hepatomegaly or splenomegaly with or
without lymphadenopathy is what
stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai
Staging System?
A. Stage 0
B. Stage II
C. Stage II
D. Stage II
E. Stage Iv
Ans: C

45. absolute lymphocytosis without
lymphadenopathy without
hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, or
thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL
prognosis Scoring Rai Staging System?
A. Stage 0
B. Stage I
C. Stage II
D. Stage II
E. Stage IV
Ans: B

46. IN Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
the Lymphocyte appearance: small or
slightly larger than normal, hyper-
nuclear chromatin patter, bare nuclei
called "smudge cells" are common.
 A. soccer-ball
B. basketball
C. football
D. tennis-ball
Ans: A

47. Which of the following forms of Hh
molecule has the lowest affinity for
A. Tense
B. Relaxed
C. Arterial
D. Venous
Ans: A

48. What is the recommended cleaner
for removing all oil from objective
A. 70 % alcohol or lens cleaner
B. Xylene
C. Water
D. Benzene
Ans: A

49. Intravascular hemolysis is the
result of trauma to RBCs while in the
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

50. Blood Hb level changes in mornging and evening Time.
A 1gm%
B. 2gm%
C. 1.5Gm%
D. 2.5gm%
answer -C

51. The shape of a cell is maintained by
which of the following?
A. Microtubules
B. Spindle Fibers
C. Ribosomes
D. Centrioles
Ans: A

52. At which month of fetal
development does the bone marrow
become the primary site of
A. 2nd
C. End of 6th month
D. End of 7th month
Ans: C

53. Which types of cells develop from
yolk sacs (Mesoblastic phase)?
A. Hb F, Hg A2, and Hg A
B. Gower 1 and Gower 2 Hgb
C. Portland Hgb
D. Only Erythrobla
Ans: D

54. Normal Adult Hb A contains the
following polypeptide chains:
A. alpha and beta
B. alpha and epsilon
C. alpha and delta
D. alpha and brotherton
Ans: A

55. Allergic reactions are frequently
associated with an increase in the
prescence of:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
Ans: D

56. Lipid exchange between the RBC
membrane and the plasma occurs:
A. To replace lost lipids in the membrane
B. To provide a mechanism for excretion
of lipid-soluble RBC waste products
C. To ensure symmetry between the
composition of the interior and exterior
lipid layers
D. To provide lipid-soluble nutrients to the
Ans: A

57. After the microscope has been
adjusted for Kohler illumination, light
intensity should never be regulated by
using the...
A. Rheostat
B. Neutral density filter
C. Kohler magnifier
D. Condenser
Ans: D

58. Which of the followong types of
microscopy is valuable in the
identification of crystals that are able
to rotate ight?

A. Compound brightfield
B. Darkfield
C. Polarizing
D. Phase-contrast
Ans: C

59. During the Medullary Phase of
hematopoietic development, which
bone is the first to show hematopoietic

A. Femur
B. Iliac Crest
C. Skull
D. Clavicle
Ans: D

60. Given the following values,
calculate the RPI Observed reticulocyte
count - 6% Hct-30°%

A. 2
B. 3
D. 5
Ans: A

61. The lipids of the RBC membrane are
A. In chains beneath a protein exoskeleton
B.So that the hydrophobic portions are
facing the plasma
C. In a hexagonal lattice
D. In two layers that are not symmetric in
Ans: D

62. The hexose monophosphate
pathway activity increases the RBC
source of
A. Glucose and lactic acid
B. 2,3-BPG and methemoglobin
C. NADPH and reduced glutathione
D. ATP and other purine metabolites
Ans: C

63. Which single feature of normal
RBC's is most responsible for limiting
their life span?
A. Loss of mitochondria
B. Increased flexibility of the cell
C. Reduction of Hb iron
D. Loss of nucleus
Ans: D

64. In the Iron cycle, the transferrin
receptor carries:

A. Iron out of duodenal cells from the
intestinal lumen
B. Iron out of duodenal cells into the
C. transferrin-bound iron in the plasma
D. transferrin-bound iron into
Ans: D

65. A multilineage cytokine among the
ILs is

A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-3
D. IL-4
Ans: A

66. Which of the following cells may
develop in sites other than the bone

A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Neutrophil
Ans: B

67. The acceptable range for
hemoglobin values on a control sample
is 13+or-0.4 g/dL. A hemoglobin
determination is performed five times
in succession on the same control
sample. The results are (in g/dL. 12 12.3,
12, 12.2, and 12.1) These results are:

A. Precise, but not accurate
B. Both accurate and precise
C. Accurate, but not precise
D. Neither accurate nor precise
Ans: A

68. The layer of the erythrocyte
membrane that is largely responsible
for the shape, structure, and
deformability of the cell is the

A. Integral protein
B. Exterior lipid
C. Peripheral protein
D. Interior lipid
Ans: C

69. During midfetal life, the primary
source of blood cells is the:

A. Bone marrow
B. Spleen
C. Lymph Nodes
D. Liver
Ans: D

70. In the bone marrow, RBC precursors
are located:

A. In the center of the hematopoietic cords
B. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the
adventitial cell lining
C. Surrounding fat cells in apoptotic
D. Surrounding macrophages near the
sinus membrane
Ans: D

71. Which of the following gathers,
organizes, and directs light through the

A. Ocular
B. Objective lens
C. Condenser
D. Optical Tube
Ans: C

72. How are the globin chains genes
arranged? Note: a means alpha, B
means beta

A. With a genes and B genes on the same
chromosome including two a genes and
two B genes
B. With a genes and B genes on seperate
chromosomes, two a genes on one
chromosome and one B gene on a
different chromosome
C. With a genes and B genes on the same
chromosome - including four a genes and
four B genes
D. With a genes and B genes orn separate
chromosomes - four a genes on one
chromosome and two B genes on a
different chromosome
Ans: B

73. The maximum number of
erythrocytes generated by one
Multipotential Stem Cell is:

A. 8
B. 1
C. 12
D. 16
Ans: D

74. What is the distribution of normal
Hh in adults?

A. 80-90% Hb A, 5-10% Hb A2, 1-5% Hb F
B.>95% Hb A, <3.5 % Hb A2, <1-2% Hb F
Ans: B

75. The most frequent cause of needle
punctures is:

A. Patient movement during venipuncture
B. Improper disposal of phlebotomy
C. Inattention during removal of needle
after venipuncture
D. Faiure to attach needle firmly to tube
Ans: B

76. Iron is incorporated into the heme
molecule in which of the following8

A. Ferrop
B. Ferrous
C. Ferric
D. Apoferritin
Ans: B


77. The most important practice in
preventing the spread of disease is:

A. Wearing masks during patient contact
B. Proper handwashing
C. Wearing disposable lab coats
D. Identifying specimens from known or
suspected HIV and HBV patients with a
red label
Ans: B

78. Which of the following would
correlate with an elevated ESR value?

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Polycythemia
C. Decreased globulins
D. Inflanmmation
Ans: D

79. The enzyme deficiency in the
Embden-Meyerhof pathway that is
responsible for most cases of
nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia is:

A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphotriptokinase
C. Pyruvate Kinase
D. Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate
Ans: C

80. The most common type of protein
found in the cell membrane is:

A. Lipoprotein
B. Mucoprotein
C. Glycoprotein
D. Nucleoprotein
Ans: C
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