MEDICAL LAB TECHNICIAN EXAM MCQS PART 3
Q.NO. 2001 TO 3000
Ø PASSWORD BELLOWS SIDE IN LAST QUESTIONS
PART- BLOOD BANK 50 MCQS
1. Question: What is the universal blood
donor type?
A. A+
B. O-
C. AB+
D. B-
Answer: B. O-
2. Question: Which blood type is
considered the universal recipient?
A. AB+
B. O-
C. A-
D. B+
Answer: A. AB+
3. Question: What is the most common
blood type in the world?
A. AB+
B. A-
C. O+
D. B-
Answer: C. O+
4. Question: Which component of blood is
responsible for clotting?
A. Platelets
B. Red Blood Cells
C. Plasma
D. White Blood Cells
Answer: A. Platelets
5. Question: What is the term for the
process of separating blood into its individual components?
A. Hemolysis
B. Coagulation
C. Centrifugation
D. Agglutination
Answer: C. Centrifugation
6. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal plasma donor"?
A. AB+
B. O-
C. A-
D. B+
Answer: A. AB+
7. Question: What is the Rh factor also
known as?
A. Rhodium
B. Rhesus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Rhubarb
Answer: B. Rhesus
8. Question: Which blood group is known
as the "Bombay blood group"?
A. A+
B. O-
C. AB+
D. O(h)
Answer: D. O(h)
9. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for carrying oxygen to the body tissues?
A. Platelets
B. Red Blood Cells
C. Plasma
D. White Blood Cells
Answer: B. Red Blood Cells
10. Question: In the ABO blood group
system, which antigens are present in type B blood?
- A. A antigens
- B. B antigens
- C. Both A and B antigens
- D. No antigens
**Answer: B. B antigens**
11. Question: Which blood type can a
person with AB- receive in a blood transfusion?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: B. O-**
12. Question: What is the term for an
abnormal immune response to blood transfusion, leading to the destruction of
transfused red blood cells?
- A. Hemolysis
- B. Agglutination
- C. Coagulation
- D. Transfusion Reaction
**Answer: D. Transfusion Reaction**
13. Question: What is the primary
purpose of crossmatching in blood banking?
- A. Determine blood type
- B. Identify infectious agents
- C. Assess donor-recipient
compatibility
- D. Measure clotting factors
**Answer: C. Assess donor-recipient
compatibility**
14. Question: Which blood type is
considered the rarest among the ABO groups?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B-
**Answer: A. AB-**
15. Question: What is the significance
of the term "antibody screen" in blood banking?
- A. Screening for infectious agents in
donated blood
- B. Detecting antibodies in the
recipient's plasma
- C. Testing clotting factors in the
blood
- D. Assessing red blood cell morphology
**Answer: B. Detecting antibodies in the
recipient's plasma**
16. Question: Which laboratory test is
performed to identify the presence of antibodies in a person's blood?
- A. Hemoglobin test
- B. Blood typing
- C. Direct Coombs test
- D. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
**Answer: C. Direct Coombs test**
17. Question: What is the purpose of
cryoprecipitate in blood transfusion?
- A. Increase platelet count
- B. Provide clotting factors
- C. Enhance oxygen-carrying capacity
- D. Prevent allergic reactions
**Answer: B. Provide clotting factors**
18. Question: Which condition is
characterized by an inadequate number of red blood cells or a deficiency of
hemoglobin in the blood?
- A. Hemophilia
- B. Anemia
- C. Leukemia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
**Answer: B. Anemia**
19. Question: What is the primary
purpose of storing blood in a blood bank?
- A. Prolong shelf life
- B. Prevent clotting
- C. Maintain temperature
- D. Ensure availability for
transfusions
**Answer: D. Ensure availability for transfusions**
20. Question: In the Rh system, if a
person is Rh-negative, what antibodies may be naturally present in their
plasma?
- A. Anti-A
- B. Anti-B
- C. Anti-Rh
- D. No antibodies
**Answer: D. No antibodies**
21. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for immune defense and fighting infections?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. White Blood Cells
**Answer: D. White Blood Cells**
22. Question: What is the primary
antibody present in the plasma of a person with blood type B?
- A. Anti-A
- B. Anti-B
- C. Anti-AB
- D. Anti-Rh
**Answer: A. Anti-A**
23. Question: What is the purpose of the
term "autologous donation" in blood banking?
- A. Donating blood for oneself
- B. Donating blood for a family member
- C. Donating blood for research
purposes
- D. Donating blood for emergency use
**Answer: A. Donating blood for
oneself**
24. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal red cell donor" in emergency situations?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: B. O-**
25. Question: What is the maximum
storage time for packed red blood cells in a blood bank refrigerator?
- A. 14 days
- B. 21 days
- C. 30 days
- D. 45 days
**Answer: B. 21 days**
26. Question: In blood banking, what
does the term "apheresis" refer to?
- A. Separation of blood components
using centrifugation
- B. Blood transfusion from one
individual to another
- C. Clotting of blood during storage
- D. Testing for infectious diseases in
donated blood
**Answer: A. Separation of blood
components using centrifugation**
27. Question: Which anticoagulant is
commonly used in blood collection tubes for routine blood tests?
- A. Heparin
- B. EDTA
- C. Sodium citrate
- D. Sodium fluoride
**Answer: B. EDTA**
28. Question: What is the primary
function of the Rh factor in blood typing?
- A. Determining blood type
- B. Controlling clotting factors
- C. Identifying donor compatibility
- D. Predicting Rh incompatibility
during pregnancy
**Answer: D. Predicting Rh incompatibility
during pregnancy**
29. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for maintaining blood pressure and electrolyte balance?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. Albumin
**Answer: D. Albumin**
30. Question: In the direct Coombs test,
what does a positive result indicate?
- A. Presence of antibodies on red blood
cells
- B. Absence of antibodies in the plasma
- C. Clumping of red blood cells
- D. Incompatibility between donor and
recipient blood
**Answer: A. Presence of antibodies on
red blood cells**
31. Question: What is the purpose of a
tourniquet during the blood donation process?
- A. To minimize blood clotting
- B. To identify veins for needle
insertion
- C. To prevent infection
- D. To measure blood pressure
**Answer: B. To identify veins for
needle insertion**
32. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal plasma donor" in the ABO system?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
33. Question: What is the primary
function of the Rh factor in the blood?
- A. Clotting
- B. Oxygen transport
- C. Antibody production
- D. Immune response
**Answer: B. Oxygen transport**
34. Question: In the ABO blood group
system, which blood types can a person with blood type O receive in a
transfusion?
- A. O only
- B. A and B
- C. O and AB
- D. O and B
35. Question: What is the term for a
condition where the recipient's antibodies attack and destroy transfused red
blood cells?
- A. Hemolysis
- B. Agglutination
- C. Coagulation
- D. Transfusion reaction
**Answer: A. Hemolysis**
36. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for maintaining blood pH and electrolyte balance?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. Buffers
**Answer: D. Buffers**
37. Question: What is the primary
screening test used to determine blood type?
- A. Crossmatching
- B. Hemoglobin test
- C. Blood typing
- D. Coagulation profile
**Answer: C. Blood typing**
38. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal donor" for plasma in the ABO system?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
39. Question: In blood transfusion, what
does the term "irradiated blood" refer to?
- A. Blood exposed to UV light for
sterilization
- B. Blood treated with anticoagulants
- C. Blood stored at low temperatures
- D. Blood exposed to ionizing radiation
to prevent graft-versus-host disease
**Answer: D. Blood exposed to ionizing
radiation to prevent graft-versus-host disease**
40. Question: Which blood type is the
least common in the ABO system worldwide?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
41. Question: What is the primary
storage temperature for fresh-frozen plasma in a blood bank?
- A. -20°C
- B. -30°C
- C. -40°C
- D. -80°C
**Answer: A. -20°C**
42. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal donor" for whole blood in the ABO system?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: B. O-**
43. Question: What is the purpose of a
blood bank's quality control program?
- A. To ensure proper documentation
- B. To monitor temperature conditions
- C. To maintain the accuracy of test
results
- D. To manage donor recruitment
**Answer: C. To maintain the accuracy of
test results**
44. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for transporting hormones and nutrients throughout the body?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. White Blood Cells
**Answer: C. Plasma**
45. Question: What is the primary
screening test for infectious diseases in donated blood?
- A. Blood typing
- B. Hemoglobin test
- C. Crossmatching
- D. Nucleic acid testing (NAT)
**Answer: D. Nucleic acid testing
(NAT)**
46. Question: What is the purpose of an
antiglobulin (Coombs) test in blood banking?
- A. To detect antibodies on red blood
cells
- B. To determine blood type
- C. To assess platelet count
- D. To measure clotting factors
**Answer: A. To detect antibodies on red
blood cells**
47. Question: Which blood component
plays a crucial role in maintaining blood pressure and volume?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. Albumin
**Answer: D. Albumin**
48. Question: What is the primary
function of the RhoGAM injection during pregnancy?
- A. To prevent Rh incompatibility
- B. To induce labor
- C. To enhance fetal development
- D. To increase hemoglobin levels
**Answer: A. To prevent Rh
incompatibility**
49. Question: In the ABO system, which
blood type has both A and B antigens on the red blood cells?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
50. Question: What is the term for a
blood clot that forms and remains in a blood vessel?
- A. Embolus
- B. Thrombus
- C. Hematoma
- D. Petechia
**Answer: B. Thrombus**
Ø
PART- SICKLE CELL 40 MCQS
1. Question:
What is the primary cause of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)?
A. Bacterial
infection
B. Genetic
mutation
C.
Environmental factors
D. Autoimmune
response
Answer: B.
Genetic mutation
2. Question: In
Sickle Cell Disease, the mutation affects the production of which protein in
red blood cells?
A. Hemoglobin A
B. Hemoglobin B
C. Hemoglobin C
D. Hemoglobin S
Answer: D.
Hemoglobin S
3. Question:
What is the typical shape of red blood cells in individuals with Sickle Cell
Disease?
A. Biconcave
discs
B. Spherical
C. Crescent or
sickle-shaped
D. Irregular
polygons
Answer: C.
Crescent or sickle-shaped
4. Question:
Which population is most commonly affected by Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Asian
B. European
C. African
D. South
American
Answer: C.
African
5. Question:
What is the major clinical manifestation of Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Chronic
cough
B. Joint pain
C. Visual
impairment
D. Insulin
resistance
Answer: B.
Joint pain
6. Question:
Which organ is particularly vulnerable to damage in individuals with Sickle
Cell Disease?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Spleen
Answer: D.
Spleen
7. Question:
What triggers the sickling of red blood cells in Sickle Cell Disease?
A. High oxygen
levels
B. Low oxygen
levels
C. Elevated pH
D. Normal blood
pH
Answer: B. Low
oxygen levels
8. Question:
Which of the following conditions can result from the blockage of blood vessels
by sickled cells in Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Stroke
B. Osteoporosis
C. Rheumatoid
arthritis
D. Hypertension
Answer: A.
Stroke
9. Question:
What is the recommended treatment for managing pain crises in individuals with
Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Antibiotics
B. Blood
transfusions
C. Pain
medications
D. Surgery
Answer: C. Pain
medications
10. Question:
How is Sickle Cell Disease inherited?
- A. Autosomal
dominant
- B. Autosomal
recessive
- C. X-linked
dominant
- D. X-linked recessive
**Answer: B.
Autosomal recessive**
11. Question:
What is the term used to describe the heterozygous condition where an
individual carries one normal hemoglobin gene and one sickle hemoglobin gene?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Sickle
cell anemia
- C. Sickle
cell crisis
- D. Sickle
cell pneumonia
**Answer: A.
Sickle cell trait**
12. Question:
Which type of hemoglobin is predominant in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease
during a crisis?
- A. Hemoglobin
A
- B. Hemoglobin
B
- C. Hemoglobin
C
- D. Hemoglobin
S
**Answer: D.
Hemoglobin S**
13. Question:
What is the primary role of hydroxyurea in the management of Sickle Cell
Disease?
- A. Pain
relief
- B. Immune
system boost
- C. Inducing
hemoglobin A production
- D. Reducing
the frequency of painful crises
**Answer: D.
Reducing the frequency of painful crises**
14. Question:
Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease
related to the breakdown of red blood cells?
- A. Hemophilia
- B.
Hyperbilirubinemia
- C.
Thrombocytosis
- D. Leukopenia
**Answer: B.
Hyperbilirubinemia**
15. Question:
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for confirming Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. Complete
Blood Count (CBC)
- B. Blood
smear
- C. Hemoglobin
electrophoresis
- D. Genetic testing
**Answer: C.
Hemoglobin electrophoresis**
16. Question:
Which organ is primarily responsible for the production of hemoglobin in the
human body?
- A. Liver
- B. Spleen
- C. Bone
marrow
- D. Kidney
**Answer: C.
Bone marrow**
17. Question:
In addition to pain management, what other therapeutic approach is commonly
used for preventing complications in Sickle Cell Disease?
- A.
Anticoagulant therapy
- B. Blood
thinners
- C. Stem cell
transplant
- D. Oxygen
therapy
**Answer: C.
Stem cell transplant**
18. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle-shaped cells block small blood
vessels, causing pain and organ damage?
- A. Ischemia
- B. Infarction
- C. Hemolysis
- D.
Vaso-occlusion
**Answer: D.
Vaso-occlusion**
19. Question:
What preventive measure is recommended for newborns identified with Sickle Cell
Disease through newborn screening?
- A. Blood
transfusion
- B.
Hydroxyurea therapy
- C.
Pneumococcal vaccination
- D. Early stem
cell transplant
**Answer: C.
Pneumococcal vaccination**
20. Question:
Which blood component is affected by the abnormal hemoglobin in Sickle Cell
Disease, leading to its characteristic shape?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood
Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. White
Blood Cells
**Answer: B.
Red Blood Cells**
21. Question:
Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with a sickle cell
crisis?
- A. Abdominal
pain
- B. Joint pain
- C. Chest pain
- D. Migraine
headaches
**Answer: D.
Migraine headaches**
22. Question:
What is the term for the condition where the spleen is damaged and becomes
non-functional in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?
- A.
Splenomegaly
- B. Sickle
splenic syndrome
- C. Asplenia
- D.
Hypersplenism
**Answer: C.
Asplenia**
23. Question:
What is the primary goal of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation in Sickle
Cell Disease?
- A. Pain
relief
- B. Cure the
disease
- C. Increase
red blood cell production
- D. Prevent
complications
**Answer: B.
Cure the disease**
24. Question:
Which blood type is most commonly associated with Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. A+
- B. O-
- C. B-
- D. S
**Answer: A.
A+**
25. Question:
What is the term for the condition where a person with Sickle Cell Disease
inherits one sickle cell gene and one gene for hemoglobin C?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Sickle
cell anemia
- C. Hemoglobin
SC disease
- D. Double
heterozygosity
**Answer: C.
Hemoglobin SC disease**
26. Question:
What is the primary mechanism by which hydroxyurea exerts its therapeutic
effects in Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. Increases
oxygen affinity of hemoglobin
- B. Stimulates
red blood cell production
- C. Induces
fetal hemoglobin production
- D. Inhibits
sickle cell gene expression
**Answer: C.
Induces fetal hemoglobin production**
27. Question:
What is the term for the inherited condition where a person has two identical
sickle cell genes (HbS/HbS)?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Sickle
cell anemia
- C. Double
heterozygosity
- D. Hemoglobin
SC disease
**Answer: B.
Sickle cell anemia**
28. Question:
What is the primary function of sickle cell screening programs?
- A. Identify
carriers of the sickle cell trait
- B. Diagnose
sickle cell complications
- C. Provide
pain management
- D. Prevent
vaso-occlusive crises
**Answer: A.
Identify carriers of the sickle cell trait**
29. Question:
Which of the following organs is particularly susceptible to infections in
individuals with Sickle Cell Disease due to impaired immune function?
- A. Lungs
- B. Liver
- C. Kidneys
- D. Pancreas
**Answer: A.
Lungs**
30. Question:
What is the term for the acute chest syndrome, a serious complication of Sickle
Cell Disease characterized by chest pain and difficulty breathing?
- A. Sickle
cell crisis
- B.
Vaso-occlusion
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Splenic
sequestration
**Answer: A. Sickle
cell crisis**
31. Question:
What is the primary reason for the increased risk of infections in individuals
with Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. Impaired
immune response
- B. High white
blood cell count
- C. Excessive
production of antibodies
- D. Presence
of abnormal platelets
**Answer: A.
Impaired immune response**
32. Question:
Which of the following complications is associated with the long-term use of
hydroxyurea in Sickle Cell Disease treatment?
- A. Increased
risk of infection
- B. Pulmonary
hypertension
- C. Renal
failure
- D. Bone
marrow suppression
**Answer: D.
Bone marrow suppression**
33. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle-shaped cells block blood flow
to the spleen, leading to rapid enlargement and potential life-threatening
complications?
- A. Splenic
sequestration
- B. Sickle
splenic syndrome
- C.
Hypersplenism
- D. Sickle
cell trait
**Answer: A.
Splenic sequestration**
34. Question:
Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease that
results from the destruction of red blood cells and increased bilirubin
production?
- A.
Hyperthyroidism
- B.
Hemochromatosis
- C.
Cholecystitis
- D. Gallstones
**Answer: D.
Gallstones**
35. Question:
What is the term for the inherited condition where a person has one sickle cell
gene and one gene for beta-thalassemia?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Hemoglobin
SC disease
- C. Sickle
beta-thalassemia
- D. Sickle
cell anemia
**Answer: C.
Sickle beta-thalassemia**
36. Question:
Which of the following complications can result from a lack of oxygen delivery
to the bones and joints in Sickle Cell Disease?
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C. Avascular
necrosis
- D. Rheumatoid
arthritis
**Answer: C.
Avascular necrosis**
37. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle cells cause the sudden pooling
of blood in the spleen, leading to a drop in hemoglobin levels and potential
shock?
- A. Splenic
sequestration
- B.
Vaso-occlusion
- C.
Hypersplenism
- D. Sickle
splenic syndrome
**Answer: A.
Splenic sequestration**
38. Question:
Which immunization is crucial for preventing infections in individuals with
Sickle Cell Disease, particularly those caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
- A. MMR
vaccine
- B. Tetanus
vaccine
- C.
Pneumococcal vaccine
- D. Hepatitis
B vaccine
**Answer: C.
Pneumococcal vaccine**
39. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle cells cause a sudden and severe
drop in hemoglobin levels, leading to increased blood viscosity and potential
stroke?
- A. Splenic
sequestration
- B. Aplastic
crisis
- C.
Hyperhemolysis
- D. Thrombotic
crisis
**Answer: B.
Aplastic crisis**
40. Question:
Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease that
results from the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels?
- A.
Thrombocytopenia
- B. Deep vein
thrombosis
- C. Pulmonary
embolism
- D. Hemophilia
**Answer: C.
Pulmonary embolism**
Ø
MALARIA DISEASE 40 MCQS
1. Question:
What is the primary cause of malaria?
A. Bacteria
B. Parasites
C. Virus
D. Fungi
Answer: B.
Parasites
2. Question:
Which species of Plasmodium is responsible for the most severe form of malaria
in humans?
A. Plasmodium
falciparum
B. Plasmodium
vivax
C. Plasmodium
malariae
D. Plasmodium
ovale
Answer: A. Plasmodium
falciparum
3. Question:
What is the primary mode of transmission of malaria to humans?
A. Direct
contact
B. Airborne
droplets
C. Contaminated
water
D. Mosquito
bites
Answer: D.
Mosquito bites
4. Question: In
which part of the human body do malaria parasites undergo asexual reproduction?
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Red blood
cells
D. Kidneys
Answer: C. Red
blood cells
5. Question:
Which type of malaria is known for its characteristic 48-hour fever cycle?
A. P. vivax
malaria
B. P.
falciparum malaria
C. P. malariae
malaria
D. P. ovale
malaria
Answer: C. P.
malariae malaria
6. Question:
Which of the following antimalarial drugs is derived from the bark of the
cinchona tree?
A. Chloroquine
B. Artemisinin
C. Quinine
D. Mefloquine
Answer: C. Quinine
7. Question:
What is the characteristic feature of Plasmodium vivax infection regarding
relapses?
A. No relapses
B. Single
relapse
C. Multiple
relapses
D. Irregular
relapses
Answer: C.
Multiple relapses
8. Question:
Which stage of the malaria parasite's life cycle is responsible for
human-to-mosquito transmission?
A. Sporozoite
B. Trophozoite
C. Schizont
D. Gametocyte
Answer: D.
Gametocyte
9. Question:
What is the recommended preventive measure for individuals traveling to malaria-endemic
areas?
A. Hepatitis A
vaccination
B. Insect
repellent
C. Oral
rehydration solution
D. Tuberculosis
prophylaxis
Answer: B.
Insect repellent
10. Question:
What is the common name for the mosquito species most responsible for
transmitting malaria in Africa?
- A. Anopheles
gambiae
- B. Aedes
aegypti
- C. Culex
pipiens
- D. Anopheles
stephensi
**Answer: A.
Anopheles gambiae**
11. Question:
Which organ is primarily affected during the initial stages of malaria
infection?
- A. Liver
- B. Lungs
- C. Spleen
- D. Kidneys
**Answer: A.
Liver**
12. Question:
What is the name of the diagnostic test commonly used to detect the presence of
malaria parasites in a blood sample?
- A. ELISA test
- B. PCR assay
- C. Rapid
diagnostic test (RDT)
- D. Western
blot
**Answer: C.
Rapid diagnostic test (RDT)**
13. Question:
Which of the following is a common symptom of malaria?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Increased
appetite
- C.
Hypertension
- D. Euphoria
**Answer: A.
Joint pain**
14. Question:
What is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated Plasmodium
falciparum malaria in many regions where resistance is low?
- A.
Chloroquine
- B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
- C. Quinine
- D. Mefloquine
**Answer: B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)**
15. Question:
In which stage of the malaria life cycle do symptoms typically occur in the
human host?
- A. Sporozoite
- B.
Trophozoite
- C. Schizont
- D. Gametocyte
**Answer: B.
Trophozoite**
16. Question:
Which population group is particularly vulnerable to severe malaria, including
cerebral malaria?
- A. Adults
- B. Children
under 5 years old
- C. Pregnant
women
- D. Elderly
individuals
**Answer: B.
Children under 5 years old**
17. Question:
Which Plasmodium species can cause relapses years after the initial infection?
- A. Plasmodium
falciparum
- B. Plasmodium
vivax
- C. Plasmodium
ovale
- D. Plasmodium
malariae
**Answer: C.
Plasmodium ovale**
18. Question:
What is the term for the severe form of malaria that can lead to seizures,
coma, and death?
- A. Mild
malaria
- B.
Uncomplicated malaria
- C. Severe
malaria
- D.
Asymptomatic malaria
**Answer: C.
Severe malaria**
19. Question:
What is the primary vector control method for preventing malaria transmission?
- A.
Insecticide-treated bed nets
- B. Indoor
residual spraying
- C.
Larviciding
- D. Genetic
modification of mosquitoes
**Answer: A.
Insecticide-treated bed nets**
20. Question:
What is the name of the class of drugs that includes artemisinin derivatives,
widely used in the treatment of malaria?
- A. Quinolines
- B.
Antifolates
- C.
Artemisinin-based compounds
- D.
Aminoquinolines
**Answer: C.
Artemisinin-based compounds**
21. Question:
What is the primary role of the Anopheles mosquito in the malaria life cycle?
- A.
Transmitting the malaria parasite to humans
- B. Acting as
a reservoir for the malaria parasite
- C. Causing
the initial infection in humans
- D. Producing
gametocytes in humans
**Answer: A. Transmitting
the malaria parasite to humans**
22. Question:
What is the term for the dormant form of the malaria parasite that can persist
in the liver for an extended period before causing a relapse?
- A. Sporozoite
- B.
Trophozoite
- C. Hypnozoite
- D. Gametocyte
**Answer: C.
Hypnozoite**
23. Question:
Which continent bears the highest burden of malaria cases globally?
- A. Europe
- B. Asia
- C. Africa
- D. North
America
**Answer: C.
Africa**
24. Question:
What is the primary mechanism by which artemisinin-based combination therapies
(ACTs) work against malaria parasites?
- A. Inhibiting
DNA synthesis
- B. Blocking
protein synthesis
- C. Disrupting
the parasite's cell membrane
- D. Inducing
oxidative stress
**Answer: D.
Inducing oxidative stress**
25. Question:
Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of severe malaria?
- A.
Respiratory distress
- B. Jaundice
- C.
Hypotension
- D. Weight
gain
**Answer: D.
Weight gain**
26. Question:
What is the recommended prophylactic drug for travelers to malaria-endemic
areas?
- A.
Chloroquine
- B.
Doxycycline
- C.
Artemether-lumefantrine
- D. Primaquine
**Answer: B.
Doxycycline**
27. Question:
Which of the following antimalarial drugs is known for causing vivid dreams or
nightmares as a side effect?
- A. Mefloquine
- B.
Artemisinin
- C.
Atovaquone-proguanil
- D. Quinine
**Answer: A.
Mefloquine**
28. Question:
In which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle do merozoites burst out of infected
red blood cells, leading to the release of new parasites?
- A. Sporozoite
- B.
Trophozoite
- C. Schizont
- D. Gametocyte
**Answer: C.
Schizont**
29. Question:
What is the term for the phenomenon where individuals living in malaria-endemic
areas develop partial immunity to severe forms of the disease over time?
- A. Acquired
resistance
- B. Immune
tolerance
- C. Malaria
adaptation
- D.
Premunition
**Answer: D.
Premunition**
30. Question:
What is the primary target of the malaria parasite in the human host during the
asexual stage of its life cycle?
- A. Liver
cells
- B. Red blood
cells
- C. Lung cells
- D. Nervous
system cells
**Answer: B.
Red blood cells**
31. Question:
What is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated malaria caused by
Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium ovale, considering their ability to form
hypnozoites?
- A.
Chloroquine
- B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
- C. Primaquine
- D. Mefloquine
**Answer: C.
Primaquine**
32. Question:
Which symptom distinguishes malaria from other febrile illnesses such as dengue
and typhoid fever?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Headache
- C. Jaundice
- D. Cyclical
fever spikes
**Answer: D.
Cyclical fever spikes**
33. Question:
What is the role of the female Anopheles mosquito in the transmission of the
malaria parasite?
- A. It injects
sporozoites into the human bloodstream during a blood meal.
- B. It lays
eggs in stagnant water.
- C. It harbors
the dormant form of the parasite.
- D. It
produces gametocytes.
**Answer: A. It
injects sporozoites into the human bloodstream during a blood meal.**
34. Question:
In which geographic region is malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax most commonly
found?
- A.
Sub-Saharan Africa
- B. Southeast
Asia
- C. South
America
- D. Central
Asia
**Answer: B.
Southeast Asia**
35. Question:
Which antimalarial drug is known for its use in the prevention of malaria
during pregnancy due to its safety for the fetus?
- A.
Doxycycline
- B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
- C. Mefloquine
- D.
Chloroquine
**Answer: D.
Chloroquine**
36. Question:
What is the term for the condition where individuals carry the malaria parasite
without showing symptoms and serve as a potential reservoir for transmission?
- A.
Symptomatic carriers
- B.
Asymptomatic carriers
- C.
Hyperparasitemia
- D. Resistant
carriers
**Answer: B.
Asymptomatic carriers**
37. Question:
Which type of malaria is known for causing a more prolonged and chronic
infection in the human host?
- A. Plasmodium
falciparum malaria
- B. Plasmodium
vivax malaria
- C. Plasmodium
ovale malaria
- D. Plasmodium
malariae malaria
**Answer: D.
Plasmodium malariae malaria**
38. Question:
What is the primary mechanism of action of quinoline antimalarial drugs like
chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine?
- A. Inhibition
of parasite enzymes
- B. Disruption
of parasite cell membrane
- C. Inhibition
of DNA synthesis
- D. Induction
of oxidative stress
**Answer: C.
Inhibition of DNA synthesis**
39. Question:
Which organ is targeted by Plasmodium falciparum during the severe form of
malaria known as cerebral malaria?
- A. Liver
- B. Lungs
- C. Brain
- D. Spleen
**Answer: C.
Brain**
40. Question:
What is the most effective method for preventing the spread of drug-resistant
malaria parasites?
- A. Developing
new antimalarial drugs
- B. Early
diagnosis and prompt treatment
- C. Vector
control measures
- D. Mass drug
administration
**Answer: B.
Early diagnosis and prompt treatment**
Ø
BACTERIAL DISEASE 50 MCQS
1.
Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis in humans?
A.
Escherichia coli
B.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Staphylococcus aureus
Answer:
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for Escherichia coli (E.
coli) infections?
A.
Airborne droplets
B.
Contaminated food and water
C.
Sexual contact
D.
Blood transfusions
Answer:
B. Contaminated food and water
3.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing Lyme disease?
A.
Borrelia burgdorferi
B.
Clostridium tetani
C.
Salmonella enterica
D.
Haemophilus influenzae
Answer:
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
4.
Question: What is the primary symptom of infection with Helicobacter pylori?
A.
Diarrhoea
B.
Abdominal pain
C.
Respiratory distress
D.
Skin rash
Answer:
B. Abdominal pain
5.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with urinary tract
infections (UTIs)?
A.
Streptococcus pyogenes
B.
Escherichia coli
C.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D.
Clostridium difficile
Answer:
B. Escherichia coli
6.
Question: What bacterial genus includes species that cause food poisoning, such
as Salmonella and E. coli?
A.
Clostridium
B.
Listeria
C.
Enterococcus
D.
Salmonella
Answer:
D. Salmonella
7.
Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing dental caries (tooth
decay)?
A.
Streptococcus mutans
B.
Staphylococcus aureus
C.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer:
A. Streptococcus mutans
8.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is associated with the development of peptic
ulcers in the stomach?
A.
Helicobacter pylori
B.
Clostridium difficile
C.
Escherichia coli
D.
Staphylococcus aureus
Answer:
A. Helicobacter pylori
9.
Question: Which bacterial disease is transmitted through the bite of infected
fleas and can cause severe pneumonia and septicaemia?
A.
Tetanus
B.
Plague
C.
Diphtheria
D.
Anthrax
Answer:
B. Plague
10.
Question: What bacterial genus includes species that can cause both strep
throat and necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease)?
-
A. Streptococcus
-
B. Staphylococcus
-
C. Neisseria
-
D. Clostridium
**Answer:
A. Streptococcus**
11.
Question: Which bacterium is associated with the formation of pseudo membranes
in the throat and respiratory tract, leading to a condition known as
diphtheria?
-
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
-
C. Neisseria meningitidis
-
D. Clostridium botulinum
**Answer:
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae**
12.
Question: What is the causative agent of urinary tract infections that can
ascend to the kidneys, causing pyelonephritis?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
A. Escherichia coli**
13.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing syphilis, a sexually
transmitted infection?
-
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
-
B. Treponema pallidum
-
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
-
D. Mycoplasma genitalium
**Answer:
B. Treponema pallidum**
14.
Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with the development of
pneumonia in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with
HIV/AIDS?
-
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
B. Legionella pneumophila
-
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
**Answer:
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa**
15.
Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the formation of a
toxin that can cause severe muscle spasms and respiratory failure, known as
"lockjaw"?
-
A. Botulism
-
B. Tetanus
-
C. Anthrax
-
D. Pertussis
**Answer:
B. Tetanus**
16.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing bubonic, septicaemic,
and pneumonic forms of disease, collectively known as the Black Death in
medieval Europe?
-
A. Yersinia pestis
-
B. Francisella tularensis
-
C. Bacillus anthracis
-
D. Mycobacterium leprae
**Answer:
A. Yersinia pestis**
17.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with foodborne
intoxications and is responsible for causing symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhoea?
-
A. Listeria monocytogenes
-
B. Clostridium difficile
-
C. Bacillus cereus
-
D. Shigella flexneri
**Answer:
C. Bacillus cereus**
18.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the bacterium Chlamydia
trachomatis, causing sexually transmitted infections as well as eye infections
in newborns?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated water
-
D. Vector bites
**Answer:
B. Sexual contact**
19.
Question: Which bacterial species is responsible for causing Legionnaires'
disease, a severe form of pneumonia often associated with contaminated water
sources?
-
A. Mycobacterium avium
-
B. Legionella pneumophila
-
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
B. Legionella pneumophila**
20.
Question: What is the common name for the bacterial infection caused by
Yersinia enterocolitica, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea?
-
A. Campylobacteriosis
-
B. Yersiniosis
-
C. Shigellosis
-
D. E. coli infection
**Answer:
B. Yersiniosis**
21.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing whooping cough, a highly
contagious respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and young
children?
-
A. Bordetella pertussis
-
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
-
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
A. Bordetella pertussis**
22.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with
community-acquired pneumonia and is a leading cause of respiratory tract
infections in adults?
-
A. Legionella pneumophila
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
-
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
**Answer:
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae**
23.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing gas gangrene, a
condition characterized by the rapid destruction of muscle tissue?
-
A. Clostridium difficile
-
B. Clostridium perfringens
-
C. Clostridium botulinum
-
D. Clostridium tetani
**Answer:
B. Clostridium perfringens**
24.
Question: Which bacterial species is a common cause of food poisoning
associated with improperly cooked poultry and eggs?
-
A. Clostridium difficile
-
B. Salmonella enterica
-
C. Escherichia coli
-
D. Campylobacter jejune
**Answer:
B. Salmonella enterica**
25.
Question: What bacterium is associated with the development of stomach ulcers
and is known for its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the
stomach?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Helicobacter pylori
-
C. Campylobacter jejuni
-
D. Clostridium difficile
**Answer:
B. Helicobacter pylori**
26.
Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the development of a
characteristic skin lesion called a chancre at the site of initial infection?
-
A. Syphilis
-
B. Gonorrhoea
-
C. Chlamydia
-
D. Trichomoniasis
**Answer:
A. Syphilis**
27.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing Q fever, a
zoonotic disease transmitted to humans from infected animals?
-
A. Coxiella burnetii
-
B. Francisella tularensis
-
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
-
D. Bartonella henselae
**Answer:
A. Coxiella burnetii**
28.
Question: Which bacterial species is associated with the development of
respiratory tract infections and is a common cause of otitis media in children?
-
A. Moraxella catarrhalis
-
B. Staphylococcus aureus
-
C. Haemophilus influenzae
-
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
**Answer:
C. Haemophilus influenzae**
29.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the bacterium Neisseria
gonorrhoeae, causing the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Vector bites
**Answer:
B. Sexual contact**
30.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing melioidosis, a
tropical disease with symptoms ranging from pneumonia to severe septicemia?
-
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
-
B. Vibrio cholerae
-
C. Clostridium difficile
-
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
**Answer:
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**
31.
Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with urinary tract
infections and is known for its ability to form biofilms on catheters and
medical devices?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
C. Proteus mirabilis
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
C. Proteus mirabilis**
32.
Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing typhoid fever, a systemic
infection characterized by prolonged fever, abdominal pain, and constipation or
diarrhea?
-
A. Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi
-
B. Escherichia coli
-
C. Shigella dysenteriae
-
D. Clostridium difficile
**Answer:
A. Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi**
33.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is commonly associated with causing
community-acquired pneumonia and is often implicated in outbreaks among crowded
populations?
-
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
-
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
C. Legionella pneumophila
-
D. Chlamydia pneumoniae
**Answer:
C. Legionella pneumophila**
34.
Question: Which bacterial species is a common cause of nosocomial
(hospital-acquired) infections, particularly in immunocompromised patients and
those with indwelling catheters?
-
A. Staphylococcus aureus
-
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
C. Clostridium difficile
-
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
**Answer:
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa**
35.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing brucellosis, a zoonotic
disease transmitted to humans from infected animals, often through the
consumption of unpasteurized dairy products?
-
A. Brucella spp.
-
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
-
C. Coxiella burnetii
-
D. Leptospira interrogans
**Answer:
A. Brucella spp.**
36.
Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the presence of
"rice water" stools and is associated with contaminated water and
poor sanitation?
-
A. Cholera
-
B. Shigellosis
-
C. Campylobacteriosis
-
D. Typhoid fever
**Answer:
A. Cholera**
37.
Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with causing
respiratory tract infections, particularly in children, and is a common cause
of otitis media?
-
A. Haemophilus influenzae
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Neisseria meningitidis
-
D. Moraxella catarrhalis
**Answer:
D. Moraxella catarrhalis**
38.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing gastroenteritis
through the consumption of contaminated food, particularly poultry and eggs?
-
A. Salmonella enterica
-
B. Escherichia coli
-
C. Campylobacter jejuni
-
D. Clostridium perfringens
**Answer:
C. Campylobacter jejuni**
39.
Question: What bacterial species is responsible for causing urinary tract
infections and is known for its ability to produce urease, leading to the
formation of urinary stones?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Proteus mirabilis
-
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
B. Proteus mirabilis**
40.
Question: Which bacterium is associated with causing melioidosis, a disease
characterized by abscess formation in various organs, particularly in regions
with tropical climates?
-
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
-
B. Vibrio cholerae
-
C. Francisella tularensis
-
D. Clostridium perfringens
**Answer:
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**
41.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing Legionnaires' disease, a
severe form of pneumonia often associated with contaminated water sources, air
conditioning systems, and hot tubs?
-
A. Legionella pneumophila
-
B. Mycobacterium avium
-
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
-
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
**Answer:
A. Legionella pneumophila**
42.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with causing
gastroenteritis through the consumption of raw or undercooked seafood,
particularly oysters?
-
A. Vibrio cholerae
-
B. Campylobacter jejuni
-
C. Escherichia coli
-
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
**Answer:
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus**
43.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing pertussis, also known as
whooping cough, a highly contagious respiratory disease characterized by severe
coughing fits?
-
A. Bordetella pertussis
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
A. Bordetella pertussis**
44.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing peptic ulcers and
gastric cancer and is capable of surviving in the acidic environment of the
stomach?
-
A. Helicobacter pylori
-
B. Clostridium difficile
-
C. Escherichia coli
-
D. Listeria monocytogenes
**Answer:
A. Helicobacter pylori**
45.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing tularemia, a zoonotic
disease that can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals
or bites from certain arthropods?
-
A. Francisella tularensis
-
B. Yersinia pestis
-
C. Bacillus anthracis
-
D. Coxiella burnetii
**Answer:
A. Francisella tularensis**
46.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with causing urinary
tract infections in individuals with anatomical abnormalities of the urinary
tract, such as vesicoureteral reflux?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
C. Proteus mirabilis
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
C. Proteus mirabilis**
47.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing melioidosis, a potentially
severe disease endemic in Southeast Asia and Northern Australia?
-
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
-
B. Vibrio cholerae
-
C. Clostridium perfringens
-
D. Mycobacterium avium
**Answer:
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**
48.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing cat scratch
fever, a condition transmitted to humans through scratches or bites from
infected cats?
-
A. Bartonella henselae
-
B. Coxiella burnetii
-
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
-
D. Rickettsia rickettsii
**Answer:
A. Bartonella henselae**
49.
Question: What bacterial species is responsible for causing whooping cough,
especially in infants, and can lead to severe respiratory distress?
-
A. Bordetella pertussis
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
A. Bordetella pertussis**
50.
Question: Which bacterium is associated with causing leprosy, a chronic
infectious disease that primarily affects the skin, peripheral nerves, and
mucous membranes of the respiratory tract?
-
A. Mycobacterium leprae
-
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
C. Mycobacterium avium
-
D. Mycobacterium bovis
**Answer:
A. Mycobacterium leprae**
Ø
VIROLOGY MCQS 80 MCQS
1.
Question: What is the genetic material of a virus?
A.
DNA
B.
RNA
C.
Both DNA and RNA
D.
Neither DNA nor RNA
Answer:
C. Both DNA and RNA
2.
Question: Which enzyme is responsible for replicating viral RNA into DNA in
retroviruses?
A.
Reverse transcriptase
B.
RNA polymerase
C.
DNA ligase
D.
Helicase
Answer:
A. Reverse transcriptase
3.
Question: What is the outer protein coat of a virus called?
A.
Capsule
B.
Envelope
C.
Capsid
D.
Membrane
Answer:
C. Capsid
4.
Question: In which host cell organelle does the replication of many viruses
take place?
A.
Nucleus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
A. Nucleus
5.
Question: What is the primary function of the viral envelope?
A.
Protection of the viral genome
B.
Facilitating viral entry into host cells
C.
Providing structural support
D.
Enabling viral replication
Answer:
B. Facilitating viral entry into host cells
6.
Question: Which type of virus utilizes reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA
genome into DNA inside the host cell?
A.
Retrovirus
B.
Orthomyxovirus
C.
Picornavirus
D.
Adenovirus
Answer:
A. Retrovirus
7.
Question: What is the term for a virus that infects bacteria?
A.
Bacteriophage
B.
Retrovirus
C.
Viroid
D.
Prion
Answer:
A. Bacteriophage
8.
Question: Which viral family does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) belong
to?
A.
Herpesviridae
B.
Retroviridae
C.
Papillomaviridae
D.
Adenoviridae
Answer:
B. Retroviridae
9.
Question: What is the name of the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of
a virus?
A.
Capsid
B.
Enzyme
C.
Matrix
D.
Spikes
Answer:
A. Capsid
10.
Question: What is the process by which a virus enters a host cell and releases
its genetic material?
-
A. Replication
-
B. Transcription
-
C. Translation
-
D. Entry or penetration
makefile
Copy
code
**Answer:
D. Entry or penetration**
11.
Question: What is the term for a virus that contains both RNA and DNA in its
genome?
-
A. Retrovirus
-
B. Picornavirus
-
C. Flavivirus
-
D. Orthomyxovirus
**Answer:
A. Retrovirus**
12.
Question: Which viral enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of complementary
RNA strands during the replication of RNA viruses?
-
A. Reverse transcriptase
-
B. RNA polymerase
-
C. DNA ligase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
B. RNA polymerase**
13.
Question: What is the name of the process by which a virus acquires an envelope
from the host cell membrane during budding?
-
A. Lysis
-
B. Exocytosis
-
C. Endocytosis
-
D. Maturation
**Answer:
B. Exocytosis**
14.
Question: Which virus is associated with the development of the common cold?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Rhinovirus
-
C. Coronavirus
-
D. Adenovirus
**Answer:
B. Rhinovirus**
15.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cleaving and
processing viral polyproteins into functional proteins during replication?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Ligase
-
C. Polymerase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
A. Protease**
16.
Question: Which type of virus is known for causing persistent infections and
may lead to chronic diseases, such as liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular
carcinoma?
-
A. Retrovirus
-
B. Hepadnavirus
-
C. Flavivirus
-
D. Herpesvirus
**Answer:
B. Hepadnavirus**
17.
Question: What is the primary target of the human papillomavirus (HPV)?
-
A. Skin cells
-
B. Liver cells
-
C. Nervous system cells
-
D. Epithelial cells
**Answer:
D. Epithelial cells**
18.
Question: Which viral family includes viruses that cause diseases such as
measles, mumps, and rubella?
-
A. Picornaviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Herpesviridae
**Answer:
C. Paramyxoviridae**
19.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Vector bites
**Answer:
B. Sexual contact**
20.
Question: Which viral family does the influenza virus belong to?
-
A. Retroviridae
-
B. Orthomyxoviridae
-
C. Picornaviridae
-
D. Flaviviridae
**Answer:
B. Orthomyxoviridae**
21.
Question: What is the primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
in the human body?
-
A. T cells
-
B. Liver cells
-
C. Neurons
-
D. Epithelial cells
**Answer:
A. T cells**
22.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing chickenpox during primary
infection and may later reappear as shingles?
-
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
-
B. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)
-
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
**Answer:
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)**
23.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for unwinding the
double-stranded DNA during replication?
-
A. Reverse transcriptase
-
B. DNA polymerase
-
C. Helicase
-
D. RNA polymerase
**Answer:
C. Helicase**
24.
Question: Which hepatitis virus is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral
route, causing symptoms such as jaundice and liver inflammation?
-
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
-
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
-
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
-
D. Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
**Answer:
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)**
25.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the Zika virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Blood transfusions
-
D. Airborne droplets
**Answer:
A. Mosquito bites**
26.
Question: Which viral family includes the human herpesviruses, such as herpes
simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, and cytomegalovirus?
-
A. Herpesviridae
-
B. Adenoviridae
-
C. Papillomaviridae
-
D. Paramyxoviridae
**Answer:
A. Herpesviridae**
27.
Question: What is the name of the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of
a virus, excluding the envelope?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Enzyme
-
C. Matrix
-
D. Spikes
**Answer:
A. Capsid**
28.
Question: Which viral family includes the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
-
A. Retroviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Flaviviridae
-
D. Orthomyxoviridae
**Answer:
A. Retroviridae**
29.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the Ebola virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Airborne droplets
-
D. Contact with infected bodily fluids
**Answer:
D. Contact with infected bodily fluids**
30.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious mononucleosis
(mono)?
-
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
-
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
D. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
**Answer:
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**
31.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the rabies virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Airborne droplets
-
C. Contact with infected blood
-
D. Animal bites, particularly from mammals
**Answer:
D. Animal bites, particularly from mammals**
32.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing dengue fever, Zika
virus, and yellow fever?
-
A. Flaviviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Coronaviridae
-
D. Picornaviridae
**Answer:
A. Flaviviridae**
33.
Question: What is the name of the phenomenon where a virus integrates its
genetic material into the host cell's genome and remains latent?
-
A. Lytic cycle
-
B. Budding
-
C. Lysogeny
-
D. Transduction
**Answer:
C. Lysogeny**
34.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing the majority of cervical
cancer cases?
-
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
-
B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
-
C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
-
D. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
**Answer:
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)**
35.
Question: What is the name of the protein spikes on the surface of the
influenza virus that determine its subtype?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Hemagglutinin (HA)
-
C. Neuraminidase (NA)
-
D. Matrix protein
**Answer:
B. Hemagglutinin (HA)**
36.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing hand, foot, and mouth disease
in children?
-
A. Coxsackievirus
-
B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
-
C. Rotavirus
-
D. Norovirus
**Answer:
A. Coxsackievirus**
37.
Question: What is the primary target of the measles virus in the human body?
-
A. Liver cells
-
B. Respiratory epithelial cells
-
C. Immune system cells
-
D. Nervous system cells
**Answer:
B. Respiratory epithelial cells**
38.
Question: Which viral enzyme is responsible for cleaving and processing viral
polyproteins into individual functional proteins during the replication of
picornaviruses?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Reverse transcriptase
-
C. RNA polymerase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
A. Protease**
39.
Question: What is the term for the process by which a virus acquires its
envelope as it exits the host cell?
-
A. Exocytosis
-
B. Budding
-
C. Maturation
-
D. Fusion
**Answer:
B. Budding**
40.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing hemorrhagic fevers such as
Ebola virus disease and Marburg virus disease?
-
A. Filovirus
-
B. Arenavirus
-
C. Flavivirus
-
D. Bunyavirus
**Answer:
A. Filovirus**
41.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious hepatitis and is
commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water?
-
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
-
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
-
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
-
D. Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
**Answer:
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)**
42.
Question: What is the name of the antiviral drug commonly used to treat
influenza infections by inhibiting neuraminidase?
-
A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
-
B. Acyclovir
-
C. Ribavirin
-
D. Interferon
**Answer:
A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)**
43.
Question: Which viral family does the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) belong to?
-
A. Herpesviridae
-
B. Flaviviridae
-
C. Coronaviridae
-
D. Togaviridae
**Answer:
A. Herpesviridae**
44.
Question: What is the name of the process by which a virus transfers its
genetic material from one host cell to another using a bacteriophage as a
vector?
-
A. Transduction
-
B. Conjugation
-
C. Transformation
-
D. Replication
**Answer:
A. Transduction**
45.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing the majority of cases of the
common cold?
-
A. Rhinovirus
-
B. Influenza virus
-
C. Coronavirus
-
D. Adenovirus
**Answer:
A. Rhinovirus**
46.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for synthesizing DNA
from an RNA template during retrovirus replication?
-
A. RNA polymerase
-
B. Reverse transcriptase
-
C. DNA ligase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
B. Reverse transcriptase**
47.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing roseola, a childhood illness
characterized by a high fever and a rash that appears after the fever breaks?
-
A. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
-
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
**Answer:
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)**
48.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses responsible for causing the
common cold, bronchitis, and pneumonia?
-
A. Picornaviridae
-
B. Coronaviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Orthomyxoviridae
**Answer:
D. Orthomyxoviridae**
49.
Question: What is the name of the phenomenon where a virus enters a state of
dormancy within the host cell without causing immediate harm?
-
A. Latency
-
B. Budding
-
C. Fusion
-
D. Maturation
**Answer:
A. Latency**
50.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing severe acute respiratory
syndrome (SARS)?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Coronavirus
-
C. Rhinovirus
-
D. Paramyxovirus
**Answer:
B. Coronavirus**
51.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing Kaposi's sarcoma, a cancer
often seen in immunocompromised individuals such as those with HIV/AIDS?
-
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
-
B. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
-
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
**Answer:
B. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**
52.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the hepatitis B virus
(HBV)?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Contact with infected blood and body fluids
**Answer:
D. Contact with infected blood and body fluids**
53.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious gastroenteritis and
is often transmitted through contaminated food and water?
-
A. Norovirus
-
B. Rotavirus
-
C. Adenovirus
-
D. Astrovirus
**Answer:
A. Norovirus**
54.
Question: What is the term for the outermost protein layer surrounding the
viral genome in some viruses, contributing to protection and attachment?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Matrix
-
C. Envelope
-
D. Spikes
**Answer:
C. Envelope**
55.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing hand, foot, and mouth disease,
particularly in young children?
-
A. Coxsackievirus
-
B. Rotavirus
-
C. Norovirus
-
D. Adenovirus
makefile
Copy
code
**Answer:
A. Coxsackievirus**
56.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for synthesizing DNA
from an RNA template during reverse transcription in retroviruses?
-
A. DNA polymerase
-
B. Reverse transcriptase
-
C. RNA polymerase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
B. Reverse transcriptase**
57.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing mumps and
parainfluenza?
-
A. Picornaviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Orthomyxoviridae
**Answer:
C. Paramyxoviridae**
58.
Question: What is the name of the glycoprotein spikes on the surface of the HIV
virus that facilitate entry into host cells?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Hemagglutinin (HA)
-
C. Neuraminidase (NA)
-
D. gp120 and gp41
**Answer:
D. gp120 and gp41**
59.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing yellow fever, a disease
transmitted by mosquitoes in tropical and subtropical regions?
-
A. Flavivirus
-
B. Togavirus
-
C. Bunyavirus
-
D. Arenavirus
**Answer:
A. Flavivirus**
60.
Question: What is the primary target of the poliovirus in the human body?
-
A. Liver cells
-
B. Nervous system cells
-
C. Epithelial cells
-
D. T cells
**Answer:
B. Nervous system cells**
61.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing severe liver disease,
including cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma?
-
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
-
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
-
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
-
D. Hepatitis E virus (HEV)
**Answer:
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)**
62.
Question: What is the term for the protective protein coat surrounding the
nucleic acid of a virus, including the capsid and envelope?
-
A. Matrix
-
B. Nucleocapsid
-
C. Spikes
-
D. Envelope
**Answer:
B. Nucleocapsid**
63.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing Hantavirus pulmonary
syndrome (HPS) and hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS)?
-
A. Flaviviridae
-
B. Arenaviridae
-
C. Bunyaviridae
-
D. Togaviridae
**Answer:
C. Bunyaviridae**
64.
Question: What is the name of the protein responsible for the attachment of a
virus to host cells during the initial stages of infection?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Matrix
-
C. Envelope
-
D. Receptor-binding protein
**Answer:
D. Receptor-binding protein**
65.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing respiratory syncytial virus
(RSV) infections, particularly in infants and young children?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Parainfluenza virus
-
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
-
D. Rhinovirus
**Answer:
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)**
66.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cutting host
cell mRNA during the process of cap-snatching in influenza virus replication?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Neuraminidase
-
C. RNA polymerase
-
D. Endonuclease
**Answer:
D. Endonuclease**
67.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing roseola infantum, a common
childhood illness characterized by a high fever and a rash that appears after
the fever subsides?
-
A. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
-
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
**Answer:
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)**
68.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the mumps virus?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Respiratory secretions
**Answer:
D. Respiratory secretions**
69.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing SARS-CoV-2
(COVID-19)?
-
A. Coronaviridae
-
B. Orthomyxoviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Filoviridae
**Answer:
A. Coronaviridae**
70.
Question: What is the name of the process by which enveloped viruses enter host
cells by merging with the host cell membrane?
-
A. Endocytosis
-
B. Budding
-
C. Fusion
-
D. Lysis
**Answer:
C. Fusion**
71.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing mononucleosis-like symptoms
and is associated with the development of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)?
-
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
-
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
C. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
-
D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
**Answer:
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)**
72.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the West Nile virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Airborne droplets
-
D. Contaminated food
**Answer:
A. Mosquito bites**
73.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing the common cold and
bronchiolitis in infants?
-
A. Coronaviridae
-
B. Adenoviridae
-
C. Picornaviridae
-
D. Paramyxoviridae
**Answer:
B. Adenoviridae**
74.
Question: What is the term for the process by which viral RNA is translated
directly into protein without the need for reverse transcription?
-
A. Transcription
-
B. Translation
-
C. Replication
-
D. Reverse transcription
**Answer:
B. Translation**
75.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing a severe respiratory illness
known as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Coronavirus
-
C. Rhinovirus
-
D. Paramyxovirus
**Answer:
B. Coronavirus**
76.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cleaving and
processing viral polyproteins into individual functional proteins during the
replication of coronaviruses?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Polymerase
-
C. Helicase
-
D. Reverse transcriptase
**Answer:
A. Protease**
77.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing German measles or rubella?
-
A. Rubi virus
-
B. Parvovirus
-
C. Rubula virus
-
D. Togavirus
**Answer:
A. Rubi virus**
78.
Question: What is the primary target of the measles virus in the human body?
-
A. Liver cells
-
B. Respiratory epithelial cells
-
C. Immune system cells
-
D. Nervous system cells
**Answer:
B. Respiratory epithelial cells**
79.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing cold sores, genital
herpes, and chickenpox?
-
A. Herpesviridae
-
B. Adenoviridae
-
C. Togaviridae
-
D. Picornaviridae
**Answer:
A. Herpesviridae**
80.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for copying RNA into
DNA during reverse transcription in retroviruses?
-
A. Reverse transcriptase
-
B. RNA polymerase
-
C. DNA ligase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
A. Reverse transcriptase**
Ø
IMMUNOLOGY MCQS 100
1.
Question: What is the primary function of antibodies in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Cytokine production
C.
Antigen presentation
D.
Binding to antigens and neutralization
Answer:
D. Binding to antigens and neutralization
2.
Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to T cells in the
immune system?
A.
B cells
B.
Macrophages
C.
Neutrophils
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
B. Macrophages
3.
Question: What is the primary role of T cells in the immune response?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Cell-mediated immunity
D.
Complement activation
Answer:
C. Cell-mediated immunity
4.
Question: Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions and is found
on the surface of mast cells and basophils?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
5.
Question: What is the main function of cytotoxic T cells?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Killing infected cells
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
C. Killing infected cells
6.
Question: Which type of immunity is acquired through vaccination or exposure to
an infectious agent?
A.
Innate immunity
B.
Passive immunity
C.
Adaptive immunity
D.
Natural immunity
Answer:
C. Adaptive immunity
7.
Question: What is the role of the thymus in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Maturation of T cells
C.
Maturation of B cells
D.
Phagocytosis
Answer:
B. Maturation of T cells
8.
Question: Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies in the immune
system?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Natural killer cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
B. B cells
9.
Question: What is the process by which immune cells engulf and digest foreign
particles or cells?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Exocytosis
C.
Endocytosis
D.
Pinocytosis
Answer:
A. Phagocytosis
10.
Question: Which type of immunity is provided by the transfer of antibodies from
mother to infant through breast milk or placenta?
-
A. Innate immunity
-
B. Passive immunity
-
C. Adaptive immunity
-
D. Acquired immunity
**Answer:
B. Passive immunity**
11.
Question: What is the primary function of helper T cells in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Killing infected cells
C.
Coordinating immune responses
D.
Producing antibodies
Answer:
C. Coordinating immune responses
12.
Question: Which molecule is responsible for antigen recognition by T cells?
A.
Immunoglobulin
B.
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
C.
Complement
D.
Cytokine
Answer:
B. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
13.
Question: Which cell type is involved in the regulation of immune responses and
the prevention of autoimmune reactions?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Regulatory T cells
C.
Cytotoxic T cells
D.
Memory B cells
Answer:
B. Regulatory T cells
14.
Question: What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Killing infected cells
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
D. Antigen presentation
15.
Question: Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant in blood and is the first
to appear during an immune response?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgG
D.
IgM
Answer:
D. IgM
16.
Question: What is the function of memory cells in the immune system?
A.
Immediate response to infections
B.
Long-term protection against specific pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis of foreign particles
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens
17.
Question: Which type of immunity is conferred by the transfer of sensitized T
cells from a donor to a recipient?
A.
Passive immunity
B.
Cell-mediated immunity
C.
Adaptive immunity
D.
Innate immunity
Answer:
B. Cell-mediated immunity
18.
Question: Which cells are responsible for releasing histamine and mediating
immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Mast cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
C. Mast cells
19.
Question: What is the primary function of natural killer (NK) cells in the
immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antibody production
C.
Killing infected and cancerous cells
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
C. Killing infected and cancerous cells
20.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for producing cytokines that modulate
the activity of other immune cells?
A.
B cells
B.
T cells
C.
Natural killer cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
B. T cells
21.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in promoting inflammation and is often
elevated during allergic reactions?
A.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
B.
Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
C.
Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
D.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
Answer:
B. Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
22.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies and complement
proteins coat microorganisms, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Complementation
C.
Agglutination
D.
Neutralization
Answer:
A. Opsonization
23.
Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE antibodies and
mast cells, leading to immediate allergic responses?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
Answer:
A. Type I
24.
Question: What is the primary function of the complement system in the immune
response?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Cytolysis
C.
Antibody production
D.
T cell activation
Answer:
B. Cytolysis
25.
Question: Which cell type plays a crucial role in the surveillance for and
destruction of virus-infected cells in a non-specific manner?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Natural killer (NK) cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
C. Natural killer (NK) cells
26.
Question: What is the name of the process by which T cells and B cells undergo
a maturation and selection process to ensure self-tolerance?
A.
Clonal expansion
B.
Positive selection
C.
Negative selection
D.
Somatic recombination
Answer:
C. Negative selection
27.
Question: Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in mucosal secretions, such
as saliva and tears?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgG
Answer:
A. IgA
28.
Question: What is the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in
the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Phagocytosis
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
B. Antigen presentation
29.
Question: Which type of T cell is responsible for suppressing immune responses
to prevent autoimmunity?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Memory T cell
D.
Regulatory T cell
Answer:
D. Regulatory T cell
30.
Question: What is the name of the process by which immune cells move toward a
site of infection or injury guided by chemical signals?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Chemotaxis
C.
Diapedesis
D.
Apoptosis
Answer:
B. Chemotaxis
31.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is the first to be produced during an
immune response and is often associated with primary infections?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgM
D.
IgG
Answer:
C. IgM
32.
Question: What is the function of the thymus in the context of T cell
development?
A.
Maturation of B cells
B.
Production of antibodies
C.
Maturation of T cells
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
C. Maturation of T cells
33.
Question: Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for activating B cells
and promoting antibody production?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Memory T cell
D.
Regulatory T cell
Answer:
A. Helper T cell
34.
Question: What is the primary function of antibodies in the opsonization
process?
A.
Inhibition of viral replication
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Facilitation of phagocytosis
D.
Activation of complement
Answer:
C. Facilitation of phagocytosis
35.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for presenting antigens to B cells and
initiating the antibody response?
A.
Macrophages
B.
Dendritic cells
C.
T cells
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
B. Dendritic cells
36.
Question: What is the role of memory B cells in the immune system?
A.
Immediate response to infections
B.
Long-term protection against specific pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis of foreign particles
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens
37.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in the differentiation of T cells into
cytotoxic T cells during the immune response?
A.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
C.
Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
D.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
Answer:
A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
38.
Question: What is the function of the spleen in the immune system?
A.
Maturation of T cells
B.
Production of antibodies
C.
Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
39.
Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the formation of
immune complexes that deposit in tissues and cause inflammation?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
Answer:
C. Type III
40.
Question: What is the primary function of cytotoxic T cells in the immune
response?
-
A. Antibody production
-
B. Phagocytosis
-
C. Killing infected cells
-
D. Cytokine release
**Answer:
C. Killing infected cells**
41.
Question: What is the term for the phenomenon where a small initial exposure to
an antigen leads to a more robust immune response upon subsequent exposures?
A.
Primary response
B.
Tolerance
C.
Memory response
D.
Secondary response
Answer:
D. Secondary response
42.
Question: Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies with high
specificity for a particular antigen?
A.
Plasma cells
B.
Memory B cells
C.
Regulatory T cells
D.
Helper T cells
Answer:
A. Plasma cells
43.
Question: Which class of antibodies can cross the placenta and provide passive
immunity to the fetus?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgG
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgG
44.
Question: What is the primary function of complement proteins in the immune
system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Opsonization
D.
Cytolysis
Answer:
D. Cytolysis
45.
Question: Which cell type plays a central role in the rejection of transplanted
organs and tissues?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Regulatory T cells
C.
Memory B cells
D.
Cytotoxic T cells
Answer:
D. Cytotoxic T cells
46.
Question: What is the term for the ability of the immune system to distinguish
self from non-self?
A.
Immune tolerance
B.
Autoimmunity
C.
Immune surveillance
D.
Immunodeficiency
Answer:
A. Immune tolerance
47.
Question: Which cytokine is primarily responsible for promoting inflammation
and attracting immune cells to the site of infection or injury?
A.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
B.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
C.
Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
D.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
Answer:
C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
48.
Question: What is the main function of the complement cascade in the immune
response?
A.
Activation of B cells
B.
Cytolysis of pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
B. Cytolysis of pathogens
49.
Question: Which cells are responsible for the production of antibodies with
diverse specificities during an immune response?
A.
Plasma cells
B.
Memory T cells
C.
Helper T cells
D.
Regulatory T cells
Answer:
A. Plasma cells
50.
Question: What is the term for the ability of an antigen to stimulate an immune
response?
A.
Immunogenicity
B.
Antigenicity
C.
Tolerance
D.
Specificity
Answer:
A. Immunogenicity
51.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is found on the surface of B cells and
serves as a receptor for antigen recognition?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
B. IgD
52.
Question: What is the primary function of the spleen in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
T cell maturation
C.
Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
53.
Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic
T cells during the immune response?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Macrophages
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
B cells
Answer:
C. Dendritic cells
54.
Question: What is the role of toll-like receptors (TLRs) in the innate immune
response?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Activation of complement
C.
Antigen presentation
D.
Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
Answer:
D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
55.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is mainly involved in mucosal immunity and
is present in tears, saliva, and breast milk?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
A. IgA
56.
Question: What is the process by which immune cells undergo programmed cell
death, contributing to the regulation of immune responses?
A.
Apoptosis
B.
Necrosis
C.
Phagocytosis
D.
Autophagy
Answer:
A. Apoptosis
57.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is associated with allergic reactions and
plays a role in defending against parasites?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
58.
Question: What is the primary function of regulatory T cells in the immune
system?
A.
Activation of cytotoxic T cells
B.
Suppression of immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
C.
Production of antibodies
D.
Phagocytosis
Answer:
B. Suppression of immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
59.
Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves delayed responses
mediated by T cells, causing tissue damage?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
Answer:
D. Type IV
60.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies and complement
proteins coat pathogens, preventing their attachment to host cells?
-
A. Opsonization
-
B. Neutralization
-
C. Agglutination
-
D. Complementation
**Answer:
B. Neutralization**
61.
Question: What is the primary function of memory T cells in the immune system?
A.
Immediate response to infections
B.
Long-term protection against specific pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis of foreign particles
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens
62.
Question: Which type of immunity is characterized by the transfer of antibodies
from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection?
A.
Innate immunity
B.
Passive immunity
C.
Adaptive immunity
D.
Active immunity
Answer:
B. Passive immunity
63.
Question: What is the primary function of interleukins in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antibody production
C.
Communication between immune cells
D.
Cytolysis
Answer:
C. Communication between immune cells
64.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for presenting antigens to CD4+ helper
T cells during the immune response?
A.
Macrophages
B.
B cells
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
C. Dendritic cells
65.
Question: What is the role of the complement system in inflammation?
A.
Inhibition of inflammation
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Cytolysis
D.
Suppression of cytokine release
Answer:
B. Phagocytosis
66.
Question: Which type of cells produce antibodies with a high affinity for
specific antigens during an immune response?
A.
Plasma cells
B.
Memory B cells
C.
Regulatory T cells
D.
Helper T cells
Answer:
A. Plasma cells
67.
Question: What is the term for the process by which T cells recognize antigens
presented by major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?
A.
Clonal expansion
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Somatic recombination
D.
T cell activation
Answer:
D. T cell activation
68.
Question: Which class of antibodies is involved in the neutralization of toxins
produced by bacteria?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgG
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgG
69.
Question: What is the role of macrophages in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Activation of T cells
D.
Mast cell degranulation
Answer:
B. Phagocytosis
70.
Question: Which cytokine is responsible for promoting the differentiation of B
cells into plasma cells during the immune response?
-
A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
-
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
-
C. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
-
D. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
**Answer:
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)**
71.
Question: What is the primary function of perforin in the immune response?
A.
Inhibition of viral replication
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Facilitation of phagocytosis
D.
Induction of cytolysis in target cells
Answer:
D. Induction of cytolysis in target cells
72.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is involved in the mucosal immune response
and is found in high concentrations in saliva and respiratory secretions?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgG
Answer:
A. IgA
73.
Question: What is the term for the process by which immune cells move from the
bloodstream into tissues in response to inflammatory signals?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Chemotaxis
C.
Diapedesis
D.
Apoptosis
Answer:
C. Diapedesis
74.
Question: Which type of T cell plays a role in suppressing immune responses and
preventing excessive reactions?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Memory T cell
D.
Regulatory T cell
Answer:
D. Regulatory T cell
75.
Question: What is the primary function of the complement component C3b in the
immune system?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization
C.
Cytolysis
D.
Antibody production
Answer:
A. Opsonization
76.
Question: Which cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of
antibodies?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Natural killer cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
B. B cells
77.
Question: What is the role of the immunoglobulin IgD in the immune system?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Mast cell degranulation
D.
Receptor on the surface of B cells
Answer:
D. Receptor on the surface of B cells
78.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in the differentiation of B cells into
plasma cells during the immune response?
A.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
C.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
D.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
Answer:
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
79.
Question: What is the main function of the natural killer (NK) cells in the
immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antibody production
C.
Killing infected and cancerous cells
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
C. Killing infected and cancerous cells
80.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is primarily responsible for providing
passive immunity to newborns through breastfeeding?
-
A. IgA
-
B. IgD
-
C. IgE
-
D. IgG
**Answer:
D. IgG**
81.
Question: What is the primary function of the CD4 co-receptor on T cells?
A.
Antigen recognition
B.
Activation of cytotoxic T cells
C.
Binding to MHC class I molecules
D.
Interaction with MHC class II molecules
Answer:
D. Interaction with MHC class II molecules
82.
Question: Which type of immunity is provided by the transfer of sensitized T
cells from a donor to a recipient?
A.
Passive immunity
B.
Cell-mediated immunity
C.
Innate immunity
D.
Adaptive immunity
Answer:
B. Cell-mediated immunity
83.
Question: What is the role of the complement component C5a in the immune
response?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Chemotaxis
C.
Cytolysis
D.
Neutralization
Answer:
B. Chemotaxis
84.
Question: Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for directly killing
infected host cells?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Regulatory T cell
D.
Memory T cell
Answer:
B. Cytotoxic T cell
85.
Question: What is the function of antibodies in the process of agglutination?
A.
Facilitation of phagocytosis
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Binding to antigens and forming clumps
D.
Activation of complement
Answer:
C. Binding to antigens and forming clumps
86.
Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic
T cells during the immune response?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Macrophages
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
B cells
Answer:
C. Dendritic cells
87.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies enhance the
phagocytosis of microorganisms by immune cells?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization
C.
Agglutination
D.
Complementation
Answer:
A. Opsonization
88.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant in the mucous
membranes and provides localized defense against pathogens?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
A. IgA
89.
Question: What is the primary function of Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha
(TNF-alpha) in the immune response?
A.
Activation of B cells
B.
Chemotaxis of immune cells
C.
Cytolysis of pathogens
D.
Suppression of inflammation
Answer:
B. Chemotaxis of immune cells
90.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for the secretion of antibodies in
response to a secondary exposure to an antigen?
-
A. Plasma cells
-
B. Memory B cells
-
C. Regulatory T cells
-
D. Helper T cells
**Answer:
A. Plasma cells**
91.
Question: What is the main function of IgE antibodies in the immune response?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Induction of phagocytosis
D.
Mediation of allergic reactions
Answer:
D. Mediation of allergic reactions
92.
Question: Which cell type is primarily responsible for presenting antigens to
CD4+ helper T cells during the immune response?
A.
Macrophages
B.
B cells
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
A. Macrophages
93.
Question: What is the term for the phenomenon where antibodies and antigens
form insoluble complexes that precipitate out of solution?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Agglutination
C.
Complementation
D.
Neutralization
Answer:
B. Agglutination
94.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is involved in the defense against
parasitic infections and allergic responses?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
95.
Question: What is the primary function of toll-like receptors (TLRs) in the
innate immune response?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Activation of complement
C.
Antigen presentation
D.
Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
Answer:
D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
96.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in promoting the differentiation of B
cells into memory B cells during the immune response?
A.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
C.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
D.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
Answer:
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
97.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies prevent the
attachment of pathogens to host cells?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization
C.
Agglutination
D.
Complementation
Answer:
B. Neutralization
98.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is found on the surface of mast cells and
basophils and is involved in allergic reactions?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
99.
Question: What is the primary function of the Major Histocompatibility Complex
(MHC) in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Complement activation
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
B. Antigen presentation
100.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for the production of antibodies with
high specificity for a particular antigen during the secondary immune response?
-
A. Plasma cells
-
B. Memory B cells
-
C. Regulatory T cells
-
D. Helper T cells
**Answer:
B. Memory B cells**
Ø
CYTOLOGY 80 MCQS
1.
Question: What is the primary function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in a
cell?
A.
Synthesis of ribosomal RNA
B.
Lipid synthesis and detoxification
C.
Protein synthesis
D.
ATP production
Answer:
C. Protein synthesis
2.
Question: Which cellular organelle is responsible for the breakdown of cellular
waste and damaged organelles?
A.
Golgi apparatus
B.
Lysosome
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Nucleus
Answer:
B. Lysosome
3.
Question: What is the main function of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
ATP synthesis
B.
Cellular respiration
C.
Storage of genetic information
D.
Protein synthesis
Answer:
C. Storage of genetic information
4.
Question: Which structure is responsible for the production of ribosomal RNA
(rRNA) in a cell?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Mitochondria
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
A. Nucleolus
5.
Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A.
G1 phase
B.
S phase
C.
G2 phase
D.
M phase
Answer:
B. S phase
6.
Question: What is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell?
A.
Synthesis of proteins
B.
Energy production (ATP synthesis)
C.
Modifying and packaging proteins
D.
Lipid synthesis
Answer:
B. Energy production (ATP synthesis)
7.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for maintaining cell shape,
providing structural support, and facilitating cell movement?
A.
Microtubules
B.
Microfilaments
C.
Intermediate filaments
D.
Centrioles
Answer:
A. Microtubules
8.
Question: What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Protein synthesis
B.
Lipid synthesis
C.
Modification and packaging of proteins
D.
Energy production
Answer:
C. Modification and packaging of proteins
9.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the separation of chromosomes
during cell division?
A.
Centriole
B.
Lysosome
C.
Nucleus
D.
Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
A. Centriole
10.
Question: What is the function of the cell membrane (plasma membrane) in a
cell?
-
A. Control of substances entering and leaving the cell
-
B. Synthesis of ATP
-
C. Storage of genetic information
-
D. Protein synthesis
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**Answer:
A. Control of substances entering and leaving the cell**
11.
Question: What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(SER) in a cell?
A.
Protein synthesis
B.
Lipid synthesis and detoxification
C.
Ribosomal RNA synthesis
D.
ATP production
Answer:
B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification
12.
Question: Which cellular organelle is responsible for generating energy through
cellular respiration?
A.
Lysosome
B.
Nucleus
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
C. Mitochondria
13.
Question: What is the main function of peroxisomes in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Protein synthesis
B.
Lipid synthesis
C.
Detoxification and breakdown of fatty acids
D.
Ribosomal RNA synthesis
Answer:
C. Detoxification and breakdown of fatty acids
14.
Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division (mitosis) occur?
A.
G1 phase
B.
S phase
C.
G2 phase
D.
M phase
Answer:
D. M phase
15.
Question: What is the function of the cytoskeleton in a cell?
A.
Storage of genetic information
B.
Synthesis of ATP
C.
Structural support, cell shape, and movement
D.
Modification and packaging of proteins
Answer:
C. Structural support, cell shape, and movement
16.
Question: Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of cellular proteins?
A.
Golgi apparatus
B.
Lysosome
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Nucleolus
Answer:
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
17.
Question: What is the role of centrosomes in cell division?
A.
Synthesis of ribosomal RNA
B.
Formation of microtubules and organization of spindle fibers
C.
Lipid synthesis
D.
Protein synthesis
Answer:
B. Formation of microtubules and organization of spindle fibers
18.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the transport of materials
within the cell and between the cell and its environment?
A.
Centriole
B.
Nucleus
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Vesicles and the endomembrane system
Answer:
D. Vesicles and the endomembrane system
19.
Question: What is the function of the nuclear envelope in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Control of substances entering and leaving the cell
B.
Synthesis of ATP
C.
Separation of chromosomes during cell division
D.
Enclosing and protecting the nucleus
Answer:
D. Enclosing and protecting the nucleus
20.
Question: What is the term for the movement of water across a selectively
permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of
higher solute concentration?
-
A. Osmosis
-
B. Active transport
-
C. Diffusion
-
D. Facilitated diffusion
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**Answer:
A. Osmosis**
21.
Question: What is the primary function of the nucleolus in a cell?
A.
Synthesis of ATP
B.
Storage of genetic information
C.
Production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D.
Detoxification
Answer:
C. Production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
22.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the synthesis and
packaging of secretory vesicles?
A.
Centriole
B.
Nucleus
C.
Golgi apparatus
D.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
C. Golgi apparatus
23.
Question: What is the term for the process by which cells engulf large
particles or other cells by wrapping pseudopodia around them?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Pinocytosis
C.
Exocytosis
D.
Endocytosis
Answer:
A. Phagocytosis
24.
Question: Which organelle contains enzymes involved in the breakdown of
cellular debris and foreign substances, acting as the "digestive
system" of the cell?
A.
Peroxisome
B.
Lysosome
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
B. Lysosome
25.
Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for mitosis,
and cellular organelles duplicate?
A.
G1 phase
B.
S phase
C.
G2 phase
D.
M phase
Answer:
C. G2 phase
26.
Question: What is the function of microfilaments in the cytoskeleton of a cell?
A.
Structural support
B.
Formation of cilia and flagella
C.
Facilitating cell movement
D.
Storage of genetic information
Answer:
C. Facilitating cell movement
27.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the synthesis of steroid
hormones and detoxification of drugs and poisons?
A.
Lysosome
B.
Peroxisome
C.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
D.
Nucleus
Answer:
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
28.
Question: What is the term for the semi-fluid substance that fills the interior
of the cell and surrounds organelles?
A.
Cytoskeleton
B.
Cytosol
C.
Cytoplasm
D.
Nucleoplasm
Answer:
C. Cytoplasm
29.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the synthesis of
ribosomal RNA and the assembly of ribosomes?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Golgi apparatus
D.
Mitochondria
Answer:
A. Nucleolus
30.
Question: What is the function of the nuclear pore complex in a eukaryotic
cell?
-
A. Facilitating the movement of ions across the nuclear envelope
-
B. Regulating the passage of molecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm
-
C. Synthesizing ribosomal RNA
-
D. Detoxification processes
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**Answer:
B. Regulating the passage of molecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm**
31.
Question: What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?
A.
Synthesis of lipids
B.
ATP production
C.
Protein synthesis
D.
Detoxification
Answer:
C. Protein synthesis
32.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the regulation of gene
expression and the synthesis of RNA?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Nucleus
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
C. Nucleus
33.
Question: What is the primary function of the cytosol in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Energy production
B.
Protein synthesis
C.
Cellular respiration
D.
Storage of genetic information
Answer:
B. Protein synthesis
34.
Question: In which organelle does cellular respiration occur, leading to the
production of ATP?
A.
Golgi apparatus
B.
Lysosome
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Peroxisome
Answer:
C. Mitochondria
35.
Question: What is the term for the movement of molecules from an area of higher
concentration to an area of lower concentration, without the use of energy?
A.
Osmosis
B.
Active transport
C.
Diffusion
D.
Facilitated diffusion
Answer:
C. Diffusion
36.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the formation of spindle
fibers during cell division?
A.
Centriole
B.
Nucleus
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
A. Centriole
37.
Question: What is the role of the nuclear membrane in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Synthesis of ATP
B.
Regulation of gene expression
C.
Separation of chromosomes during cell division
D.
Control of substances entering and leaving the nucleus
Answer:
D. Control of substances entering and leaving the nucleus
38.
Question: Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of phospholipids and
steroids?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Golgi apparatus
D.
Peroxisome
Answer:
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
39.
Question: What is the function of microtubules in the cytoskeleton of a cell?
A.
Structural support
B.
Facilitating cell movement
C.
Formation of cilia and flagella
D.
Detoxification processes
Answer:
A. Structural support
40.
Question: What is the term for the process by which cells engulf small
particles or fluids by forming vesicles?
-
A. Phagocytosis
-
B. Pinocytosis
-
C. Exocytosis
-
D. Endocytosis
**Answer:
B. Pinocytosis**
PAP SMEAR MCQS
1.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Pap smear?
A.
Detection of breast cancer
B.
Detection of cervical cancer and precancerous changes
C.
Diagnosis of ovarian cysts
D.
Monitoring thyroid function
Answer:
B. Detection of cervical cancer and precancerous changes
2.
Question: At what age is it recommended for women to start getting regular Pap
smears as part of cervical cancer screening?
A.
18 years
B.
25 years
C.
30 years
D.
40 years
Answer:
B. 25 years
3.
Question: What is the recommended frequency for Pap smears for women with
normal results?
A.
Every year
B.
Every two years
C.
Every three years
D.
Every five years
Answer:
C. Every three years
4.
Question: What does the Pap test involve?
A.
Blood test
B.
Urine test
C.
Collection of cells from the cervix for examination
D.
Imaging study of the uterus
Answer:
C. Collection of cells from the cervix for examination
5.
Question: Which virus is a major cause of cervical cancer and is often detected
in Pap smear results?
A.
Influenza virus
B.
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C.
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Answer:
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
6.
Question: What is the main goal of early detection through Pap smears in
cervical cancer prevention?
A.
Complete eradication of cancer cells
B.
Identification of optimal treatment options
C.
Detection and removal of precancerous lesions
D.
Determination of cancer staging
Answer:
C. Detection and removal of precancerous lesions
7.
Question: How are abnormal Pap smear results classified?
A.
Grade I
B.
Grade II
C.
Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) and high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
D.
Stage 1, Stage 2, and Stage 3
Answer:
C. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) and high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
8.
Question: What is the recommended follow-up for women with abnormal Pap smear
results indicating high-grade changes?
A.
Repeat Pap smear in one year
B.
Colposcopy and biopsy
C.
Immediate hysterectomy
D.
Hormonal therapy
Answer:
B. Colposcopy and biopsy
9.
Question: How does the Pap smear contribute to the prevention of cervical
cancer?
A.
By directly treating precancerous lesions
B.
By preventing the development of human papillomavirus (HPV)
C.
By identifying and treating precancerous changes before they become cancerous
D.
By removing the entire cervix
Answer:
C. By identifying and treating precancerous changes before they become
cancerous
10.
Question: What is the significance of an "ASCUS" result on a Pap
smear?
-
A. Presence of normal cervical cells
-
B. Indication of cancerous cells
-
C. Uncertain or atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
-
D. Detection of hormonal imbalance
**Answer:
C. Uncertain or atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance**
CERVICAL CANCER MCQ
1.
Question: What is the primary cause of cervical cancer?
A.
Smoking
B.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
C.
Hormonal imbalance
D.
Genetic factors
Answer:
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
2.
Question: Which type of HPV is most strongly associated with the development of
cervical cancer?
A.
HPV type 6
B.
HPV type 11
C.
High-risk HPV types, especially 16 and 18
D.
Low-risk HPV types, especially 6 and 11
Answer:
C. High-risk HPV types, especially 16 and 18
3.
Question: What is the role of the HPV vaccine in cervical cancer prevention?
A.
Treatment of existing HPV infections
B.
Prevention of all HPV types
C.
Prevention of high-risk HPV types, including 16 and 18
D.
Cure for cervical cancer
Answer:
C. Prevention of high-risk HPV types, including 16 and 18
4.
Question: Which of the following is a known risk factor for the development of
cervical cancer?
A.
Early menopause
B.
Hormone replacement therapy
C.
Multiple sexual partners
D.
Regular Pap smear screenings
Answer:
C. Multiple sexual partners
5.
Question: What is the purpose of a colposcopy in the evaluation of cervical
abnormalities?
A.
Removal of the cervix
B.
Visualization and biopsy of the cervix
C.
Hormone therapy
D.
Pap smear collection
Answer:
B. Visualization and biopsy of the cervix
6.
Question: How does the FIGO (International Federation of Gynaecology and
Obstetrics) staging system classify the extent of cervical cancer?
A.
Stage 0, Stage I, Stage II, Stage III, Stage IV
B.
Grade I, Grade II, Grade III
C.
Localized, Regional, Distant
D.
Low-risk, Intermediate-risk, High-risk
Answer: A. S