MEDICAL LAB TECHNICIAN EXAM MCQS PART 3
Q.NO. 2001 TO 3000
Ø PASSWORD BELLOWS SIDE IN LAST QUESTIONS
PART- BLOOD BANK 50 MCQS
1. Question: What is the universal blood
donor type?
A. A+
B. O-
C. AB+
D. B-
Answer: B. O-
2. Question: Which blood type is
considered the universal recipient?
A. AB+
B. O-
C. A-
D. B+
Answer: A. AB+
3. Question: What is the most common
blood type in the world?
A. AB+
B. A-
C. O+
D. B-
Answer: C. O+
4. Question: Which component of blood is
responsible for clotting?
A. Platelets
B. Red Blood Cells
C. Plasma
D. White Blood Cells
Answer: A. Platelets
5. Question: What is the term for the
process of separating blood into its individual components?
A. Hemolysis
B. Coagulation
C. Centrifugation
D. Agglutination
Answer: C. Centrifugation
6. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal plasma donor"?
A. AB+
B. O-
C. A-
D. B+
Answer: A. AB+
7. Question: What is the Rh factor also
known as?
A. Rhodium
B. Rhesus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Rhubarb
Answer: B. Rhesus
8. Question: Which blood group is known
as the "Bombay blood group"?
A. A+
B. O-
C. AB+
D. O(h)
Answer: D. O(h)
9. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for carrying oxygen to the body tissues?
A. Platelets
B. Red Blood Cells
C. Plasma
D. White Blood Cells
Answer: B. Red Blood Cells
10. Question: In the ABO blood group
system, which antigens are present in type B blood?
- A. A antigens
- B. B antigens
- C. Both A and B antigens
- D. No antigens
**Answer: B. B antigens**
11. Question: Which blood type can a
person with AB- receive in a blood transfusion?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: B. O-**
12. Question: What is the term for an
abnormal immune response to blood transfusion, leading to the destruction of
transfused red blood cells?
- A. Hemolysis
- B. Agglutination
- C. Coagulation
- D. Transfusion Reaction
**Answer: D. Transfusion Reaction**
13. Question: What is the primary
purpose of crossmatching in blood banking?
- A. Determine blood type
- B. Identify infectious agents
- C. Assess donor-recipient
compatibility
- D. Measure clotting factors
**Answer: C. Assess donor-recipient
compatibility**
14. Question: Which blood type is
considered the rarest among the ABO groups?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B-
**Answer: A. AB-**
15. Question: What is the significance
of the term "antibody screen" in blood banking?
- A. Screening for infectious agents in
donated blood
- B. Detecting antibodies in the
recipient's plasma
- C. Testing clotting factors in the
blood
- D. Assessing red blood cell morphology
**Answer: B. Detecting antibodies in the
recipient's plasma**
16. Question: Which laboratory test is
performed to identify the presence of antibodies in a person's blood?
- A. Hemoglobin test
- B. Blood typing
- C. Direct Coombs test
- D. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
**Answer: C. Direct Coombs test**
17. Question: What is the purpose of
cryoprecipitate in blood transfusion?
- A. Increase platelet count
- B. Provide clotting factors
- C. Enhance oxygen-carrying capacity
- D. Prevent allergic reactions
**Answer: B. Provide clotting factors**
18. Question: Which condition is
characterized by an inadequate number of red blood cells or a deficiency of
hemoglobin in the blood?
- A. Hemophilia
- B. Anemia
- C. Leukemia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
**Answer: B. Anemia**
19. Question: What is the primary
purpose of storing blood in a blood bank?
- A. Prolong shelf life
- B. Prevent clotting
- C. Maintain temperature
- D. Ensure availability for
transfusions
**Answer: D. Ensure availability for transfusions**
20. Question: In the Rh system, if a
person is Rh-negative, what antibodies may be naturally present in their
plasma?
- A. Anti-A
- B. Anti-B
- C. Anti-Rh
- D. No antibodies
**Answer: D. No antibodies**
21. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for immune defense and fighting infections?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. White Blood Cells
**Answer: D. White Blood Cells**
22. Question: What is the primary
antibody present in the plasma of a person with blood type B?
- A. Anti-A
- B. Anti-B
- C. Anti-AB
- D. Anti-Rh
**Answer: A. Anti-A**
23. Question: What is the purpose of the
term "autologous donation" in blood banking?
- A. Donating blood for oneself
- B. Donating blood for a family member
- C. Donating blood for research
purposes
- D. Donating blood for emergency use
**Answer: A. Donating blood for
oneself**
24. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal red cell donor" in emergency situations?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: B. O-**
25. Question: What is the maximum
storage time for packed red blood cells in a blood bank refrigerator?
- A. 14 days
- B. 21 days
- C. 30 days
- D. 45 days
**Answer: B. 21 days**
26. Question: In blood banking, what
does the term "apheresis" refer to?
- A. Separation of blood components
using centrifugation
- B. Blood transfusion from one
individual to another
- C. Clotting of blood during storage
- D. Testing for infectious diseases in
donated blood
**Answer: A. Separation of blood
components using centrifugation**
27. Question: Which anticoagulant is
commonly used in blood collection tubes for routine blood tests?
- A. Heparin
- B. EDTA
- C. Sodium citrate
- D. Sodium fluoride
**Answer: B. EDTA**
28. Question: What is the primary
function of the Rh factor in blood typing?
- A. Determining blood type
- B. Controlling clotting factors
- C. Identifying donor compatibility
- D. Predicting Rh incompatibility
during pregnancy
**Answer: D. Predicting Rh incompatibility
during pregnancy**
29. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for maintaining blood pressure and electrolyte balance?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. Albumin
**Answer: D. Albumin**
30. Question: In the direct Coombs test,
what does a positive result indicate?
- A. Presence of antibodies on red blood
cells
- B. Absence of antibodies in the plasma
- C. Clumping of red blood cells
- D. Incompatibility between donor and
recipient blood
**Answer: A. Presence of antibodies on
red blood cells**
31. Question: What is the purpose of a
tourniquet during the blood donation process?
- A. To minimize blood clotting
- B. To identify veins for needle
insertion
- C. To prevent infection
- D. To measure blood pressure
**Answer: B. To identify veins for
needle insertion**
32. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal plasma donor" in the ABO system?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
33. Question: What is the primary
function of the Rh factor in the blood?
- A. Clotting
- B. Oxygen transport
- C. Antibody production
- D. Immune response
**Answer: B. Oxygen transport**
34. Question: In the ABO blood group
system, which blood types can a person with blood type O receive in a
transfusion?
- A. O only
- B. A and B
- C. O and AB
- D. O and B
35. Question: What is the term for a
condition where the recipient's antibodies attack and destroy transfused red
blood cells?
- A. Hemolysis
- B. Agglutination
- C. Coagulation
- D. Transfusion reaction
**Answer: A. Hemolysis**
36. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for maintaining blood pH and electrolyte balance?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. Buffers
**Answer: D. Buffers**
37. Question: What is the primary
screening test used to determine blood type?
- A. Crossmatching
- B. Hemoglobin test
- C. Blood typing
- D. Coagulation profile
**Answer: C. Blood typing**
38. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal donor" for plasma in the ABO system?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
39. Question: In blood transfusion, what
does the term "irradiated blood" refer to?
- A. Blood exposed to UV light for
sterilization
- B. Blood treated with anticoagulants
- C. Blood stored at low temperatures
- D. Blood exposed to ionizing radiation
to prevent graft-versus-host disease
**Answer: D. Blood exposed to ionizing
radiation to prevent graft-versus-host disease**
40. Question: Which blood type is the
least common in the ABO system worldwide?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
41. Question: What is the primary
storage temperature for fresh-frozen plasma in a blood bank?
- A. -20°C
- B. -30°C
- C. -40°C
- D. -80°C
**Answer: A. -20°C**
42. Question: Which blood type is
considered the "universal donor" for whole blood in the ABO system?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: B. O-**
43. Question: What is the purpose of a
blood bank's quality control program?
- A. To ensure proper documentation
- B. To monitor temperature conditions
- C. To maintain the accuracy of test
results
- D. To manage donor recruitment
**Answer: C. To maintain the accuracy of
test results**
44. Question: Which blood component is
responsible for transporting hormones and nutrients throughout the body?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. White Blood Cells
**Answer: C. Plasma**
45. Question: What is the primary
screening test for infectious diseases in donated blood?
- A. Blood typing
- B. Hemoglobin test
- C. Crossmatching
- D. Nucleic acid testing (NAT)
**Answer: D. Nucleic acid testing
(NAT)**
46. Question: What is the purpose of an
antiglobulin (Coombs) test in blood banking?
- A. To detect antibodies on red blood
cells
- B. To determine blood type
- C. To assess platelet count
- D. To measure clotting factors
**Answer: A. To detect antibodies on red
blood cells**
47. Question: Which blood component
plays a crucial role in maintaining blood pressure and volume?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. Albumin
**Answer: D. Albumin**
48. Question: What is the primary
function of the RhoGAM injection during pregnancy?
- A. To prevent Rh incompatibility
- B. To induce labor
- C. To enhance fetal development
- D. To increase hemoglobin levels
**Answer: A. To prevent Rh
incompatibility**
49. Question: In the ABO system, which
blood type has both A and B antigens on the red blood cells?
- A. AB+
- B. O-
- C. A-
- D. B+
**Answer: A. AB+**
50. Question: What is the term for a
blood clot that forms and remains in a blood vessel?
- A. Embolus
- B. Thrombus
- C. Hematoma
- D. Petechia
**Answer: B. Thrombus**
Ø
PART- SICKLE CELL 40 MCQS
1. Question:
What is the primary cause of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)?
A. Bacterial
infection
B. Genetic
mutation
C.
Environmental factors
D. Autoimmune
response
Answer: B.
Genetic mutation
2. Question: In
Sickle Cell Disease, the mutation affects the production of which protein in
red blood cells?
A. Hemoglobin A
B. Hemoglobin B
C. Hemoglobin C
D. Hemoglobin S
Answer: D.
Hemoglobin S
3. Question:
What is the typical shape of red blood cells in individuals with Sickle Cell
Disease?
A. Biconcave
discs
B. Spherical
C. Crescent or
sickle-shaped
D. Irregular
polygons
Answer: C.
Crescent or sickle-shaped
4. Question:
Which population is most commonly affected by Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Asian
B. European
C. African
D. South
American
Answer: C.
African
5. Question:
What is the major clinical manifestation of Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Chronic
cough
B. Joint pain
C. Visual
impairment
D. Insulin
resistance
Answer: B.
Joint pain
6. Question:
Which organ is particularly vulnerable to damage in individuals with Sickle
Cell Disease?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Spleen
Answer: D.
Spleen
7. Question:
What triggers the sickling of red blood cells in Sickle Cell Disease?
A. High oxygen
levels
B. Low oxygen
levels
C. Elevated pH
D. Normal blood
pH
Answer: B. Low
oxygen levels
8. Question:
Which of the following conditions can result from the blockage of blood vessels
by sickled cells in Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Stroke
B. Osteoporosis
C. Rheumatoid
arthritis
D. Hypertension
Answer: A.
Stroke
9. Question:
What is the recommended treatment for managing pain crises in individuals with
Sickle Cell Disease?
A. Antibiotics
B. Blood
transfusions
C. Pain
medications
D. Surgery
Answer: C. Pain
medications
10. Question:
How is Sickle Cell Disease inherited?
- A. Autosomal
dominant
- B. Autosomal
recessive
- C. X-linked
dominant
- D. X-linked recessive
**Answer: B.
Autosomal recessive**
11. Question:
What is the term used to describe the heterozygous condition where an
individual carries one normal hemoglobin gene and one sickle hemoglobin gene?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Sickle
cell anemia
- C. Sickle
cell crisis
- D. Sickle
cell pneumonia
**Answer: A.
Sickle cell trait**
12. Question:
Which type of hemoglobin is predominant in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease
during a crisis?
- A. Hemoglobin
A
- B. Hemoglobin
B
- C. Hemoglobin
C
- D. Hemoglobin
S
**Answer: D.
Hemoglobin S**
13. Question:
What is the primary role of hydroxyurea in the management of Sickle Cell
Disease?
- A. Pain
relief
- B. Immune
system boost
- C. Inducing
hemoglobin A production
- D. Reducing
the frequency of painful crises
**Answer: D.
Reducing the frequency of painful crises**
14. Question:
Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease
related to the breakdown of red blood cells?
- A. Hemophilia
- B.
Hyperbilirubinemia
- C.
Thrombocytosis
- D. Leukopenia
**Answer: B.
Hyperbilirubinemia**
15. Question:
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for confirming Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. Complete
Blood Count (CBC)
- B. Blood
smear
- C. Hemoglobin
electrophoresis
- D. Genetic testing
**Answer: C.
Hemoglobin electrophoresis**
16. Question:
Which organ is primarily responsible for the production of hemoglobin in the
human body?
- A. Liver
- B. Spleen
- C. Bone
marrow
- D. Kidney
**Answer: C.
Bone marrow**
17. Question:
In addition to pain management, what other therapeutic approach is commonly
used for preventing complications in Sickle Cell Disease?
- A.
Anticoagulant therapy
- B. Blood
thinners
- C. Stem cell
transplant
- D. Oxygen
therapy
**Answer: C.
Stem cell transplant**
18. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle-shaped cells block small blood
vessels, causing pain and organ damage?
- A. Ischemia
- B. Infarction
- C. Hemolysis
- D.
Vaso-occlusion
**Answer: D.
Vaso-occlusion**
19. Question:
What preventive measure is recommended for newborns identified with Sickle Cell
Disease through newborn screening?
- A. Blood
transfusion
- B.
Hydroxyurea therapy
- C.
Pneumococcal vaccination
- D. Early stem
cell transplant
**Answer: C.
Pneumococcal vaccination**
20. Question:
Which blood component is affected by the abnormal hemoglobin in Sickle Cell
Disease, leading to its characteristic shape?
- A. Platelets
- B. Red Blood
Cells
- C. Plasma
- D. White
Blood Cells
**Answer: B.
Red Blood Cells**
21. Question:
Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with a sickle cell
crisis?
- A. Abdominal
pain
- B. Joint pain
- C. Chest pain
- D. Migraine
headaches
**Answer: D.
Migraine headaches**
22. Question:
What is the term for the condition where the spleen is damaged and becomes
non-functional in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?
- A.
Splenomegaly
- B. Sickle
splenic syndrome
- C. Asplenia
- D.
Hypersplenism
**Answer: C.
Asplenia**
23. Question:
What is the primary goal of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation in Sickle
Cell Disease?
- A. Pain
relief
- B. Cure the
disease
- C. Increase
red blood cell production
- D. Prevent
complications
**Answer: B.
Cure the disease**
24. Question:
Which blood type is most commonly associated with Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. A+
- B. O-
- C. B-
- D. S
**Answer: A.
A+**
25. Question:
What is the term for the condition where a person with Sickle Cell Disease
inherits one sickle cell gene and one gene for hemoglobin C?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Sickle
cell anemia
- C. Hemoglobin
SC disease
- D. Double
heterozygosity
**Answer: C.
Hemoglobin SC disease**
26. Question:
What is the primary mechanism by which hydroxyurea exerts its therapeutic
effects in Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. Increases
oxygen affinity of hemoglobin
- B. Stimulates
red blood cell production
- C. Induces
fetal hemoglobin production
- D. Inhibits
sickle cell gene expression
**Answer: C.
Induces fetal hemoglobin production**
27. Question:
What is the term for the inherited condition where a person has two identical
sickle cell genes (HbS/HbS)?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Sickle
cell anemia
- C. Double
heterozygosity
- D. Hemoglobin
SC disease
**Answer: B.
Sickle cell anemia**
28. Question:
What is the primary function of sickle cell screening programs?
- A. Identify
carriers of the sickle cell trait
- B. Diagnose
sickle cell complications
- C. Provide
pain management
- D. Prevent
vaso-occlusive crises
**Answer: A.
Identify carriers of the sickle cell trait**
29. Question:
Which of the following organs is particularly susceptible to infections in
individuals with Sickle Cell Disease due to impaired immune function?
- A. Lungs
- B. Liver
- C. Kidneys
- D. Pancreas
**Answer: A.
Lungs**
30. Question:
What is the term for the acute chest syndrome, a serious complication of Sickle
Cell Disease characterized by chest pain and difficulty breathing?
- A. Sickle
cell crisis
- B.
Vaso-occlusion
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Splenic
sequestration
**Answer: A. Sickle
cell crisis**
31. Question:
What is the primary reason for the increased risk of infections in individuals
with Sickle Cell Disease?
- A. Impaired
immune response
- B. High white
blood cell count
- C. Excessive
production of antibodies
- D. Presence
of abnormal platelets
**Answer: A.
Impaired immune response**
32. Question:
Which of the following complications is associated with the long-term use of
hydroxyurea in Sickle Cell Disease treatment?
- A. Increased
risk of infection
- B. Pulmonary
hypertension
- C. Renal
failure
- D. Bone
marrow suppression
**Answer: D.
Bone marrow suppression**
33. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle-shaped cells block blood flow
to the spleen, leading to rapid enlargement and potential life-threatening
complications?
- A. Splenic
sequestration
- B. Sickle
splenic syndrome
- C.
Hypersplenism
- D. Sickle
cell trait
**Answer: A.
Splenic sequestration**
34. Question:
Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease that
results from the destruction of red blood cells and increased bilirubin
production?
- A.
Hyperthyroidism
- B.
Hemochromatosis
- C.
Cholecystitis
- D. Gallstones
**Answer: D.
Gallstones**
35. Question:
What is the term for the inherited condition where a person has one sickle cell
gene and one gene for beta-thalassemia?
- A. Sickle
cell trait
- B. Hemoglobin
SC disease
- C. Sickle
beta-thalassemia
- D. Sickle
cell anemia
**Answer: C.
Sickle beta-thalassemia**
36. Question:
Which of the following complications can result from a lack of oxygen delivery
to the bones and joints in Sickle Cell Disease?
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C. Avascular
necrosis
- D. Rheumatoid
arthritis
**Answer: C.
Avascular necrosis**
37. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle cells cause the sudden pooling
of blood in the spleen, leading to a drop in hemoglobin levels and potential
shock?
- A. Splenic
sequestration
- B.
Vaso-occlusion
- C.
Hypersplenism
- D. Sickle
splenic syndrome
**Answer: A.
Splenic sequestration**
38. Question:
Which immunization is crucial for preventing infections in individuals with
Sickle Cell Disease, particularly those caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
- A. MMR
vaccine
- B. Tetanus
vaccine
- C.
Pneumococcal vaccine
- D. Hepatitis
B vaccine
**Answer: C.
Pneumococcal vaccine**
39. Question:
What is the term for the condition where sickle cells cause a sudden and severe
drop in hemoglobin levels, leading to increased blood viscosity and potential
stroke?
- A. Splenic
sequestration
- B. Aplastic
crisis
- C.
Hyperhemolysis
- D. Thrombotic
crisis
**Answer: B.
Aplastic crisis**
40. Question:
Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease that
results from the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels?
- A.
Thrombocytopenia
- B. Deep vein
thrombosis
- C. Pulmonary
embolism
- D. Hemophilia
**Answer: C.
Pulmonary embolism**
Ø
MALARIA DISEASE 40 MCQS
1. Question:
What is the primary cause of malaria?
A. Bacteria
B. Parasites
C. Virus
D. Fungi
Answer: B.
Parasites
2. Question:
Which species of Plasmodium is responsible for the most severe form of malaria
in humans?
A. Plasmodium
falciparum
B. Plasmodium
vivax
C. Plasmodium
malariae
D. Plasmodium
ovale
Answer: A. Plasmodium
falciparum
3. Question:
What is the primary mode of transmission of malaria to humans?
A. Direct
contact
B. Airborne
droplets
C. Contaminated
water
D. Mosquito
bites
Answer: D.
Mosquito bites
4. Question: In
which part of the human body do malaria parasites undergo asexual reproduction?
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Red blood
cells
D. Kidneys
Answer: C. Red
blood cells
5. Question:
Which type of malaria is known for its characteristic 48-hour fever cycle?
A. P. vivax
malaria
B. P.
falciparum malaria
C. P. malariae
malaria
D. P. ovale
malaria
Answer: C. P.
malariae malaria
6. Question:
Which of the following antimalarial drugs is derived from the bark of the
cinchona tree?
A. Chloroquine
B. Artemisinin
C. Quinine
D. Mefloquine
Answer: C. Quinine
7. Question:
What is the characteristic feature of Plasmodium vivax infection regarding
relapses?
A. No relapses
B. Single
relapse
C. Multiple
relapses
D. Irregular
relapses
Answer: C.
Multiple relapses
8. Question:
Which stage of the malaria parasite's life cycle is responsible for
human-to-mosquito transmission?
A. Sporozoite
B. Trophozoite
C. Schizont
D. Gametocyte
Answer: D.
Gametocyte
9. Question:
What is the recommended preventive measure for individuals traveling to malaria-endemic
areas?
A. Hepatitis A
vaccination
B. Insect
repellent
C. Oral
rehydration solution
D. Tuberculosis
prophylaxis
Answer: B.
Insect repellent
10. Question:
What is the common name for the mosquito species most responsible for
transmitting malaria in Africa?
- A. Anopheles
gambiae
- B. Aedes
aegypti
- C. Culex
pipiens
- D. Anopheles
stephensi
**Answer: A.
Anopheles gambiae**
11. Question:
Which organ is primarily affected during the initial stages of malaria
infection?
- A. Liver
- B. Lungs
- C. Spleen
- D. Kidneys
**Answer: A.
Liver**
12. Question:
What is the name of the diagnostic test commonly used to detect the presence of
malaria parasites in a blood sample?
- A. ELISA test
- B. PCR assay
- C. Rapid
diagnostic test (RDT)
- D. Western
blot
**Answer: C.
Rapid diagnostic test (RDT)**
13. Question:
Which of the following is a common symptom of malaria?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Increased
appetite
- C.
Hypertension
- D. Euphoria
**Answer: A.
Joint pain**
14. Question:
What is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated Plasmodium
falciparum malaria in many regions where resistance is low?
- A.
Chloroquine
- B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
- C. Quinine
- D. Mefloquine
**Answer: B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)**
15. Question:
In which stage of the malaria life cycle do symptoms typically occur in the
human host?
- A. Sporozoite
- B.
Trophozoite
- C. Schizont
- D. Gametocyte
**Answer: B.
Trophozoite**
16. Question:
Which population group is particularly vulnerable to severe malaria, including
cerebral malaria?
- A. Adults
- B. Children
under 5 years old
- C. Pregnant
women
- D. Elderly
individuals
**Answer: B.
Children under 5 years old**
17. Question:
Which Plasmodium species can cause relapses years after the initial infection?
- A. Plasmodium
falciparum
- B. Plasmodium
vivax
- C. Plasmodium
ovale
- D. Plasmodium
malariae
**Answer: C.
Plasmodium ovale**
18. Question:
What is the term for the severe form of malaria that can lead to seizures,
coma, and death?
- A. Mild
malaria
- B.
Uncomplicated malaria
- C. Severe
malaria
- D.
Asymptomatic malaria
**Answer: C.
Severe malaria**
19. Question:
What is the primary vector control method for preventing malaria transmission?
- A.
Insecticide-treated bed nets
- B. Indoor
residual spraying
- C.
Larviciding
- D. Genetic
modification of mosquitoes
**Answer: A.
Insecticide-treated bed nets**
20. Question:
What is the name of the class of drugs that includes artemisinin derivatives,
widely used in the treatment of malaria?
- A. Quinolines
- B.
Antifolates
- C.
Artemisinin-based compounds
- D.
Aminoquinolines
**Answer: C.
Artemisinin-based compounds**
21. Question:
What is the primary role of the Anopheles mosquito in the malaria life cycle?
- A.
Transmitting the malaria parasite to humans
- B. Acting as
a reservoir for the malaria parasite
- C. Causing
the initial infection in humans
- D. Producing
gametocytes in humans
**Answer: A. Transmitting
the malaria parasite to humans**
22. Question:
What is the term for the dormant form of the malaria parasite that can persist
in the liver for an extended period before causing a relapse?
- A. Sporozoite
- B.
Trophozoite
- C. Hypnozoite
- D. Gametocyte
**Answer: C.
Hypnozoite**
23. Question:
Which continent bears the highest burden of malaria cases globally?
- A. Europe
- B. Asia
- C. Africa
- D. North
America
**Answer: C.
Africa**
24. Question:
What is the primary mechanism by which artemisinin-based combination therapies
(ACTs) work against malaria parasites?
- A. Inhibiting
DNA synthesis
- B. Blocking
protein synthesis
- C. Disrupting
the parasite's cell membrane
- D. Inducing
oxidative stress
**Answer: D.
Inducing oxidative stress**
25. Question:
Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of severe malaria?
- A.
Respiratory distress
- B. Jaundice
- C.
Hypotension
- D. Weight
gain
**Answer: D.
Weight gain**
26. Question:
What is the recommended prophylactic drug for travelers to malaria-endemic
areas?
- A.
Chloroquine
- B.
Doxycycline
- C.
Artemether-lumefantrine
- D. Primaquine
**Answer: B.
Doxycycline**
27. Question:
Which of the following antimalarial drugs is known for causing vivid dreams or
nightmares as a side effect?
- A. Mefloquine
- B.
Artemisinin
- C.
Atovaquone-proguanil
- D. Quinine
**Answer: A.
Mefloquine**
28. Question:
In which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle do merozoites burst out of infected
red blood cells, leading to the release of new parasites?
- A. Sporozoite
- B.
Trophozoite
- C. Schizont
- D. Gametocyte
**Answer: C.
Schizont**
29. Question:
What is the term for the phenomenon where individuals living in malaria-endemic
areas develop partial immunity to severe forms of the disease over time?
- A. Acquired
resistance
- B. Immune
tolerance
- C. Malaria
adaptation
- D.
Premunition
**Answer: D.
Premunition**
30. Question:
What is the primary target of the malaria parasite in the human host during the
asexual stage of its life cycle?
- A. Liver
cells
- B. Red blood
cells
- C. Lung cells
- D. Nervous
system cells
**Answer: B.
Red blood cells**
31. Question:
What is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated malaria caused by
Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium ovale, considering their ability to form
hypnozoites?
- A.
Chloroquine
- B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
- C. Primaquine
- D. Mefloquine
**Answer: C.
Primaquine**
32. Question:
Which symptom distinguishes malaria from other febrile illnesses such as dengue
and typhoid fever?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Headache
- C. Jaundice
- D. Cyclical
fever spikes
**Answer: D.
Cyclical fever spikes**
33. Question:
What is the role of the female Anopheles mosquito in the transmission of the
malaria parasite?
- A. It injects
sporozoites into the human bloodstream during a blood meal.
- B. It lays
eggs in stagnant water.
- C. It harbors
the dormant form of the parasite.
- D. It
produces gametocytes.
**Answer: A. It
injects sporozoites into the human bloodstream during a blood meal.**
34. Question:
In which geographic region is malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax most commonly
found?
- A.
Sub-Saharan Africa
- B. Southeast
Asia
- C. South
America
- D. Central
Asia
**Answer: B.
Southeast Asia**
35. Question:
Which antimalarial drug is known for its use in the prevention of malaria
during pregnancy due to its safety for the fetus?
- A.
Doxycycline
- B.
Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
- C. Mefloquine
- D.
Chloroquine
**Answer: D.
Chloroquine**
36. Question:
What is the term for the condition where individuals carry the malaria parasite
without showing symptoms and serve as a potential reservoir for transmission?
- A.
Symptomatic carriers
- B.
Asymptomatic carriers
- C.
Hyperparasitemia
- D. Resistant
carriers
**Answer: B.
Asymptomatic carriers**
37. Question:
Which type of malaria is known for causing a more prolonged and chronic
infection in the human host?
- A. Plasmodium
falciparum malaria
- B. Plasmodium
vivax malaria
- C. Plasmodium
ovale malaria
- D. Plasmodium
malariae malaria
**Answer: D.
Plasmodium malariae malaria**
38. Question:
What is the primary mechanism of action of quinoline antimalarial drugs like
chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine?
- A. Inhibition
of parasite enzymes
- B. Disruption
of parasite cell membrane
- C. Inhibition
of DNA synthesis
- D. Induction
of oxidative stress
**Answer: C.
Inhibition of DNA synthesis**
39. Question:
Which organ is targeted by Plasmodium falciparum during the severe form of
malaria known as cerebral malaria?
- A. Liver
- B. Lungs
- C. Brain
- D. Spleen
**Answer: C.
Brain**
40. Question:
What is the most effective method for preventing the spread of drug-resistant
malaria parasites?
- A. Developing
new antimalarial drugs
- B. Early
diagnosis and prompt treatment
- C. Vector
control measures
- D. Mass drug
administration
**Answer: B.
Early diagnosis and prompt treatment**
Ø
BACTERIAL DISEASE 50 MCQS
1.
Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis in humans?
A.
Escherichia coli
B.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
D.
Staphylococcus aureus
Answer:
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for Escherichia coli (E.
coli) infections?
A.
Airborne droplets
B.
Contaminated food and water
C.
Sexual contact
D.
Blood transfusions
Answer:
B. Contaminated food and water
3.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing Lyme disease?
A.
Borrelia burgdorferi
B.
Clostridium tetani
C.
Salmonella enterica
D.
Haemophilus influenzae
Answer:
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
4.
Question: What is the primary symptom of infection with Helicobacter pylori?
A.
Diarrhoea
B.
Abdominal pain
C.
Respiratory distress
D.
Skin rash
Answer:
B. Abdominal pain
5.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with urinary tract
infections (UTIs)?
A.
Streptococcus pyogenes
B.
Escherichia coli
C.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D.
Clostridium difficile
Answer:
B. Escherichia coli
6.
Question: What bacterial genus includes species that cause food poisoning, such
as Salmonella and E. coli?
A.
Clostridium
B.
Listeria
C.
Enterococcus
D.
Salmonella
Answer:
D. Salmonella
7.
Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing dental caries (tooth
decay)?
A.
Streptococcus mutans
B.
Staphylococcus aureus
C.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Answer:
A. Streptococcus mutans
8.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is associated with the development of peptic
ulcers in the stomach?
A.
Helicobacter pylori
B.
Clostridium difficile
C.
Escherichia coli
D.
Staphylococcus aureus
Answer:
A. Helicobacter pylori
9.
Question: Which bacterial disease is transmitted through the bite of infected
fleas and can cause severe pneumonia and septicaemia?
A.
Tetanus
B.
Plague
C.
Diphtheria
D.
Anthrax
Answer:
B. Plague
10.
Question: What bacterial genus includes species that can cause both strep
throat and necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease)?
-
A. Streptococcus
-
B. Staphylococcus
-
C. Neisseria
-
D. Clostridium
**Answer:
A. Streptococcus**
11.
Question: Which bacterium is associated with the formation of pseudo membranes
in the throat and respiratory tract, leading to a condition known as
diphtheria?
-
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
-
C. Neisseria meningitidis
-
D. Clostridium botulinum
**Answer:
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae**
12.
Question: What is the causative agent of urinary tract infections that can
ascend to the kidneys, causing pyelonephritis?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
A. Escherichia coli**
13.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing syphilis, a sexually
transmitted infection?
-
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
-
B. Treponema pallidum
-
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
-
D. Mycoplasma genitalium
**Answer:
B. Treponema pallidum**
14.
Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with the development of
pneumonia in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with
HIV/AIDS?
-
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
B. Legionella pneumophila
-
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
**Answer:
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa**
15.
Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the formation of a
toxin that can cause severe muscle spasms and respiratory failure, known as
"lockjaw"?
-
A. Botulism
-
B. Tetanus
-
C. Anthrax
-
D. Pertussis
**Answer:
B. Tetanus**
16.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing bubonic, septicaemic,
and pneumonic forms of disease, collectively known as the Black Death in
medieval Europe?
-
A. Yersinia pestis
-
B. Francisella tularensis
-
C. Bacillus anthracis
-
D. Mycobacterium leprae
**Answer:
A. Yersinia pestis**
17.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with foodborne
intoxications and is responsible for causing symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhoea?
-
A. Listeria monocytogenes
-
B. Clostridium difficile
-
C. Bacillus cereus
-
D. Shigella flexneri
**Answer:
C. Bacillus cereus**
18.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the bacterium Chlamydia
trachomatis, causing sexually transmitted infections as well as eye infections
in newborns?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated water
-
D. Vector bites
**Answer:
B. Sexual contact**
19.
Question: Which bacterial species is responsible for causing Legionnaires'
disease, a severe form of pneumonia often associated with contaminated water
sources?
-
A. Mycobacterium avium
-
B. Legionella pneumophila
-
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
B. Legionella pneumophila**
20.
Question: What is the common name for the bacterial infection caused by
Yersinia enterocolitica, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea?
-
A. Campylobacteriosis
-
B. Yersiniosis
-
C. Shigellosis
-
D. E. coli infection
**Answer:
B. Yersiniosis**
21.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing whooping cough, a highly
contagious respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and young
children?
-
A. Bordetella pertussis
-
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
-
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
A. Bordetella pertussis**
22.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with
community-acquired pneumonia and is a leading cause of respiratory tract
infections in adults?
-
A. Legionella pneumophila
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
-
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
**Answer:
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae**
23.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing gas gangrene, a
condition characterized by the rapid destruction of muscle tissue?
-
A. Clostridium difficile
-
B. Clostridium perfringens
-
C. Clostridium botulinum
-
D. Clostridium tetani
**Answer:
B. Clostridium perfringens**
24.
Question: Which bacterial species is a common cause of food poisoning
associated with improperly cooked poultry and eggs?
-
A. Clostridium difficile
-
B. Salmonella enterica
-
C. Escherichia coli
-
D. Campylobacter jejune
**Answer:
B. Salmonella enterica**
25.
Question: What bacterium is associated with the development of stomach ulcers
and is known for its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the
stomach?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Helicobacter pylori
-
C. Campylobacter jejuni
-
D. Clostridium difficile
**Answer:
B. Helicobacter pylori**
26.
Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the development of a
characteristic skin lesion called a chancre at the site of initial infection?
-
A. Syphilis
-
B. Gonorrhoea
-
C. Chlamydia
-
D. Trichomoniasis
**Answer:
A. Syphilis**
27.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing Q fever, a
zoonotic disease transmitted to humans from infected animals?
-
A. Coxiella burnetii
-
B. Francisella tularensis
-
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
-
D. Bartonella henselae
**Answer:
A. Coxiella burnetii**
28.
Question: Which bacterial species is associated with the development of
respiratory tract infections and is a common cause of otitis media in children?
-
A. Moraxella catarrhalis
-
B. Staphylococcus aureus
-
C. Haemophilus influenzae
-
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
**Answer:
C. Haemophilus influenzae**
29.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the bacterium Neisseria
gonorrhoeae, causing the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Vector bites
**Answer:
B. Sexual contact**
30.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing melioidosis, a
tropical disease with symptoms ranging from pneumonia to severe septicemia?
-
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
-
B. Vibrio cholerae
-
C. Clostridium difficile
-
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
**Answer:
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**
31.
Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with urinary tract
infections and is known for its ability to form biofilms on catheters and
medical devices?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
C. Proteus mirabilis
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
C. Proteus mirabilis**
32.
Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing typhoid fever, a systemic
infection characterized by prolonged fever, abdominal pain, and constipation or
diarrhea?
-
A. Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi
-
B. Escherichia coli
-
C. Shigella dysenteriae
-
D. Clostridium difficile
**Answer:
A. Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi**
33.
Question: What bacterial pathogen is commonly associated with causing
community-acquired pneumonia and is often implicated in outbreaks among crowded
populations?
-
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
-
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
C. Legionella pneumophila
-
D. Chlamydia pneumoniae
**Answer:
C. Legionella pneumophila**
34.
Question: Which bacterial species is a common cause of nosocomial
(hospital-acquired) infections, particularly in immunocompromised patients and
those with indwelling catheters?
-
A. Staphylococcus aureus
-
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-
C. Clostridium difficile
-
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
**Answer:
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa**
35.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing brucellosis, a zoonotic
disease transmitted to humans from infected animals, often through the
consumption of unpasteurized dairy products?
-
A. Brucella spp.
-
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
-
C. Coxiella burnetii
-
D. Leptospira interrogans
**Answer:
A. Brucella spp.**
36.
Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the presence of
"rice water" stools and is associated with contaminated water and
poor sanitation?
-
A. Cholera
-
B. Shigellosis
-
C. Campylobacteriosis
-
D. Typhoid fever
**Answer:
A. Cholera**
37.
Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with causing
respiratory tract infections, particularly in children, and is a common cause
of otitis media?
-
A. Haemophilus influenzae
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Neisseria meningitidis
-
D. Moraxella catarrhalis
**Answer:
D. Moraxella catarrhalis**
38.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing gastroenteritis
through the consumption of contaminated food, particularly poultry and eggs?
-
A. Salmonella enterica
-
B. Escherichia coli
-
C. Campylobacter jejuni
-
D. Clostridium perfringens
**Answer:
C. Campylobacter jejuni**
39.
Question: What bacterial species is responsible for causing urinary tract
infections and is known for its ability to produce urease, leading to the
formation of urinary stones?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Proteus mirabilis
-
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
B. Proteus mirabilis**
40.
Question: Which bacterium is associated with causing melioidosis, a disease
characterized by abscess formation in various organs, particularly in regions
with tropical climates?
-
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
-
B. Vibrio cholerae
-
C. Francisella tularensis
-
D. Clostridium perfringens
**Answer:
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**
41.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing Legionnaires' disease, a
severe form of pneumonia often associated with contaminated water sources, air
conditioning systems, and hot tubs?
-
A. Legionella pneumophila
-
B. Mycobacterium avium
-
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
-
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
**Answer:
A. Legionella pneumophila**
42.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with causing
gastroenteritis through the consumption of raw or undercooked seafood,
particularly oysters?
-
A. Vibrio cholerae
-
B. Campylobacter jejuni
-
C. Escherichia coli
-
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
**Answer:
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus**
43.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing pertussis, also known as
whooping cough, a highly contagious respiratory disease characterized by severe
coughing fits?
-
A. Bordetella pertussis
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
A. Bordetella pertussis**
44.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing peptic ulcers and
gastric cancer and is capable of surviving in the acidic environment of the
stomach?
-
A. Helicobacter pylori
-
B. Clostridium difficile
-
C. Escherichia coli
-
D. Listeria monocytogenes
**Answer:
A. Helicobacter pylori**
45.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing tularemia, a zoonotic
disease that can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals
or bites from certain arthropods?
-
A. Francisella tularensis
-
B. Yersinia pestis
-
C. Bacillus anthracis
-
D. Coxiella burnetii
**Answer:
A. Francisella tularensis**
46.
Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with causing urinary
tract infections in individuals with anatomical abnormalities of the urinary
tract, such as vesicoureteral reflux?
-
A. Escherichia coli
-
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
-
C. Proteus mirabilis
-
D. Enterococcus faecalis
**Answer:
C. Proteus mirabilis**
47.
Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing melioidosis, a potentially
severe disease endemic in Southeast Asia and Northern Australia?
-
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
-
B. Vibrio cholerae
-
C. Clostridium perfringens
-
D. Mycobacterium avium
**Answer:
A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**
48.
Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing cat scratch
fever, a condition transmitted to humans through scratches or bites from
infected cats?
-
A. Bartonella henselae
-
B. Coxiella burnetii
-
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
-
D. Rickettsia rickettsii
**Answer:
A. Bartonella henselae**
49.
Question: What bacterial species is responsible for causing whooping cough,
especially in infants, and can lead to severe respiratory distress?
-
A. Bordetella pertussis
-
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
-
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
-
D. Haemophilus influenzae
**Answer:
A. Bordetella pertussis**
50.
Question: Which bacterium is associated with causing leprosy, a chronic
infectious disease that primarily affects the skin, peripheral nerves, and
mucous membranes of the respiratory tract?
-
A. Mycobacterium leprae
-
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
C. Mycobacterium avium
-
D. Mycobacterium bovis
**Answer:
A. Mycobacterium leprae**
Ø
VIROLOGY MCQS 80 MCQS
1.
Question: What is the genetic material of a virus?
A.
DNA
B.
RNA
C.
Both DNA and RNA
D.
Neither DNA nor RNA
Answer:
C. Both DNA and RNA
2.
Question: Which enzyme is responsible for replicating viral RNA into DNA in
retroviruses?
A.
Reverse transcriptase
B.
RNA polymerase
C.
DNA ligase
D.
Helicase
Answer:
A. Reverse transcriptase
3.
Question: What is the outer protein coat of a virus called?
A.
Capsule
B.
Envelope
C.
Capsid
D.
Membrane
Answer:
C. Capsid
4.
Question: In which host cell organelle does the replication of many viruses
take place?
A.
Nucleus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
A. Nucleus
5.
Question: What is the primary function of the viral envelope?
A.
Protection of the viral genome
B.
Facilitating viral entry into host cells
C.
Providing structural support
D.
Enabling viral replication
Answer:
B. Facilitating viral entry into host cells
6.
Question: Which type of virus utilizes reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA
genome into DNA inside the host cell?
A.
Retrovirus
B.
Orthomyxovirus
C.
Picornavirus
D.
Adenovirus
Answer:
A. Retrovirus
7.
Question: What is the term for a virus that infects bacteria?
A.
Bacteriophage
B.
Retrovirus
C.
Viroid
D.
Prion
Answer:
A. Bacteriophage
8.
Question: Which viral family does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) belong
to?
A.
Herpesviridae
B.
Retroviridae
C.
Papillomaviridae
D.
Adenoviridae
Answer:
B. Retroviridae
9.
Question: What is the name of the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of
a virus?
A.
Capsid
B.
Enzyme
C.
Matrix
D.
Spikes
Answer:
A. Capsid
10.
Question: What is the process by which a virus enters a host cell and releases
its genetic material?
-
A. Replication
-
B. Transcription
-
C. Translation
-
D. Entry or penetration
makefile
Copy
code
**Answer:
D. Entry or penetration**
11.
Question: What is the term for a virus that contains both RNA and DNA in its
genome?
-
A. Retrovirus
-
B. Picornavirus
-
C. Flavivirus
-
D. Orthomyxovirus
**Answer:
A. Retrovirus**
12.
Question: Which viral enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of complementary
RNA strands during the replication of RNA viruses?
-
A. Reverse transcriptase
-
B. RNA polymerase
-
C. DNA ligase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
B. RNA polymerase**
13.
Question: What is the name of the process by which a virus acquires an envelope
from the host cell membrane during budding?
-
A. Lysis
-
B. Exocytosis
-
C. Endocytosis
-
D. Maturation
**Answer:
B. Exocytosis**
14.
Question: Which virus is associated with the development of the common cold?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Rhinovirus
-
C. Coronavirus
-
D. Adenovirus
**Answer:
B. Rhinovirus**
15.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cleaving and
processing viral polyproteins into functional proteins during replication?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Ligase
-
C. Polymerase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
A. Protease**
16.
Question: Which type of virus is known for causing persistent infections and
may lead to chronic diseases, such as liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular
carcinoma?
-
A. Retrovirus
-
B. Hepadnavirus
-
C. Flavivirus
-
D. Herpesvirus
**Answer:
B. Hepadnavirus**
17.
Question: What is the primary target of the human papillomavirus (HPV)?
-
A. Skin cells
-
B. Liver cells
-
C. Nervous system cells
-
D. Epithelial cells
**Answer:
D. Epithelial cells**
18.
Question: Which viral family includes viruses that cause diseases such as
measles, mumps, and rubella?
-
A. Picornaviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Herpesviridae
**Answer:
C. Paramyxoviridae**
19.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Vector bites
**Answer:
B. Sexual contact**
20.
Question: Which viral family does the influenza virus belong to?
-
A. Retroviridae
-
B. Orthomyxoviridae
-
C. Picornaviridae
-
D. Flaviviridae
**Answer:
B. Orthomyxoviridae**
21.
Question: What is the primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
in the human body?
-
A. T cells
-
B. Liver cells
-
C. Neurons
-
D. Epithelial cells
**Answer:
A. T cells**
22.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing chickenpox during primary
infection and may later reappear as shingles?
-
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
-
B. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)
-
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
**Answer:
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)**
23.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for unwinding the
double-stranded DNA during replication?
-
A. Reverse transcriptase
-
B. DNA polymerase
-
C. Helicase
-
D. RNA polymerase
**Answer:
C. Helicase**
24.
Question: Which hepatitis virus is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral
route, causing symptoms such as jaundice and liver inflammation?
-
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
-
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
-
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
-
D. Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
**Answer:
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)**
25.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the Zika virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Blood transfusions
-
D. Airborne droplets
**Answer:
A. Mosquito bites**
26.
Question: Which viral family includes the human herpesviruses, such as herpes
simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, and cytomegalovirus?
-
A. Herpesviridae
-
B. Adenoviridae
-
C. Papillomaviridae
-
D. Paramyxoviridae
**Answer:
A. Herpesviridae**
27.
Question: What is the name of the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of
a virus, excluding the envelope?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Enzyme
-
C. Matrix
-
D. Spikes
**Answer:
A. Capsid**
28.
Question: Which viral family includes the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
-
A. Retroviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Flaviviridae
-
D. Orthomyxoviridae
**Answer:
A. Retroviridae**
29.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the Ebola virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Airborne droplets
-
D. Contact with infected bodily fluids
**Answer:
D. Contact with infected bodily fluids**
30.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious mononucleosis
(mono)?
-
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
-
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
D. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
**Answer:
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**
31.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the rabies virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Airborne droplets
-
C. Contact with infected blood
-
D. Animal bites, particularly from mammals
**Answer:
D. Animal bites, particularly from mammals**
32.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing dengue fever, Zika
virus, and yellow fever?
-
A. Flaviviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Coronaviridae
-
D. Picornaviridae
**Answer:
A. Flaviviridae**
33.
Question: What is the name of the phenomenon where a virus integrates its
genetic material into the host cell's genome and remains latent?
-
A. Lytic cycle
-
B. Budding
-
C. Lysogeny
-
D. Transduction
**Answer:
C. Lysogeny**
34.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing the majority of cervical
cancer cases?
-
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
-
B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
-
C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
-
D. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
**Answer:
A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)**
35.
Question: What is the name of the protein spikes on the surface of the
influenza virus that determine its subtype?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Hemagglutinin (HA)
-
C. Neuraminidase (NA)
-
D. Matrix protein
**Answer:
B. Hemagglutinin (HA)**
36.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing hand, foot, and mouth disease
in children?
-
A. Coxsackievirus
-
B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
-
C. Rotavirus
-
D. Norovirus
**Answer:
A. Coxsackievirus**
37.
Question: What is the primary target of the measles virus in the human body?
-
A. Liver cells
-
B. Respiratory epithelial cells
-
C. Immune system cells
-
D. Nervous system cells
**Answer:
B. Respiratory epithelial cells**
38.
Question: Which viral enzyme is responsible for cleaving and processing viral
polyproteins into individual functional proteins during the replication of
picornaviruses?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Reverse transcriptase
-
C. RNA polymerase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
A. Protease**
39.
Question: What is the term for the process by which a virus acquires its
envelope as it exits the host cell?
-
A. Exocytosis
-
B. Budding
-
C. Maturation
-
D. Fusion
**Answer:
B. Budding**
40.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing hemorrhagic fevers such as
Ebola virus disease and Marburg virus disease?
-
A. Filovirus
-
B. Arenavirus
-
C. Flavivirus
-
D. Bunyavirus
**Answer:
A. Filovirus**
41.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious hepatitis and is
commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water?
-
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
-
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
-
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
-
D. Hepatitis D virus (HDV)
**Answer:
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)**
42.
Question: What is the name of the antiviral drug commonly used to treat
influenza infections by inhibiting neuraminidase?
-
A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
-
B. Acyclovir
-
C. Ribavirin
-
D. Interferon
**Answer:
A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)**
43.
Question: Which viral family does the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) belong to?
-
A. Herpesviridae
-
B. Flaviviridae
-
C. Coronaviridae
-
D. Togaviridae
**Answer:
A. Herpesviridae**
44.
Question: What is the name of the process by which a virus transfers its
genetic material from one host cell to another using a bacteriophage as a
vector?
-
A. Transduction
-
B. Conjugation
-
C. Transformation
-
D. Replication
**Answer:
A. Transduction**
45.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing the majority of cases of the
common cold?
-
A. Rhinovirus
-
B. Influenza virus
-
C. Coronavirus
-
D. Adenovirus
**Answer:
A. Rhinovirus**
46.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for synthesizing DNA
from an RNA template during retrovirus replication?
-
A. RNA polymerase
-
B. Reverse transcriptase
-
C. DNA ligase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
B. Reverse transcriptase**
47.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing roseola, a childhood illness
characterized by a high fever and a rash that appears after the fever breaks?
-
A. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
-
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
**Answer:
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)**
48.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses responsible for causing the
common cold, bronchitis, and pneumonia?
-
A. Picornaviridae
-
B. Coronaviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Orthomyxoviridae
**Answer:
D. Orthomyxoviridae**
49.
Question: What is the name of the phenomenon where a virus enters a state of
dormancy within the host cell without causing immediate harm?
-
A. Latency
-
B. Budding
-
C. Fusion
-
D. Maturation
**Answer:
A. Latency**
50.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing severe acute respiratory
syndrome (SARS)?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Coronavirus
-
C. Rhinovirus
-
D. Paramyxovirus
**Answer:
B. Coronavirus**
51.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing Kaposi's sarcoma, a cancer
often seen in immunocompromised individuals such as those with HIV/AIDS?
-
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
-
B. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
-
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
**Answer:
B. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**
52.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the hepatitis B virus
(HBV)?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Contact with infected blood and body fluids
**Answer:
D. Contact with infected blood and body fluids**
53.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious gastroenteritis and
is often transmitted through contaminated food and water?
-
A. Norovirus
-
B. Rotavirus
-
C. Adenovirus
-
D. Astrovirus
**Answer:
A. Norovirus**
54.
Question: What is the term for the outermost protein layer surrounding the
viral genome in some viruses, contributing to protection and attachment?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Matrix
-
C. Envelope
-
D. Spikes
**Answer:
C. Envelope**
55.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing hand, foot, and mouth disease,
particularly in young children?
-
A. Coxsackievirus
-
B. Rotavirus
-
C. Norovirus
-
D. Adenovirus
makefile
Copy
code
**Answer:
A. Coxsackievirus**
56.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for synthesizing DNA
from an RNA template during reverse transcription in retroviruses?
-
A. DNA polymerase
-
B. Reverse transcriptase
-
C. RNA polymerase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
B. Reverse transcriptase**
57.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing mumps and
parainfluenza?
-
A. Picornaviridae
-
B. Togaviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Orthomyxoviridae
**Answer:
C. Paramyxoviridae**
58.
Question: What is the name of the glycoprotein spikes on the surface of the HIV
virus that facilitate entry into host cells?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Hemagglutinin (HA)
-
C. Neuraminidase (NA)
-
D. gp120 and gp41
**Answer:
D. gp120 and gp41**
59.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing yellow fever, a disease
transmitted by mosquitoes in tropical and subtropical regions?
-
A. Flavivirus
-
B. Togavirus
-
C. Bunyavirus
-
D. Arenavirus
**Answer:
A. Flavivirus**
60.
Question: What is the primary target of the poliovirus in the human body?
-
A. Liver cells
-
B. Nervous system cells
-
C. Epithelial cells
-
D. T cells
**Answer:
B. Nervous system cells**
61.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing severe liver disease,
including cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma?
-
A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
-
B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
-
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
-
D. Hepatitis E virus (HEV)
**Answer:
C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)**
62.
Question: What is the term for the protective protein coat surrounding the
nucleic acid of a virus, including the capsid and envelope?
-
A. Matrix
-
B. Nucleocapsid
-
C. Spikes
-
D. Envelope
**Answer:
B. Nucleocapsid**
63.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing Hantavirus pulmonary
syndrome (HPS) and hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS)?
-
A. Flaviviridae
-
B. Arenaviridae
-
C. Bunyaviridae
-
D. Togaviridae
**Answer:
C. Bunyaviridae**
64.
Question: What is the name of the protein responsible for the attachment of a
virus to host cells during the initial stages of infection?
-
A. Capsid
-
B. Matrix
-
C. Envelope
-
D. Receptor-binding protein
**Answer:
D. Receptor-binding protein**
65.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing respiratory syncytial virus
(RSV) infections, particularly in infants and young children?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Parainfluenza virus
-
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
-
D. Rhinovirus
**Answer:
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)**
66.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cutting host
cell mRNA during the process of cap-snatching in influenza virus replication?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Neuraminidase
-
C. RNA polymerase
-
D. Endonuclease
**Answer:
D. Endonuclease**
67.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing roseola infantum, a common
childhood illness characterized by a high fever and a rash that appears after
the fever subsides?
-
A. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
-
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
-
C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
**Answer:
B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)**
68.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the mumps virus?
-
A. Airborne droplets
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Contaminated food
-
D. Respiratory secretions
**Answer:
D. Respiratory secretions**
69.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing SARS-CoV-2
(COVID-19)?
-
A. Coronaviridae
-
B. Orthomyxoviridae
-
C. Paramyxoviridae
-
D. Filoviridae
**Answer:
A. Coronaviridae**
70.
Question: What is the name of the process by which enveloped viruses enter host
cells by merging with the host cell membrane?
-
A. Endocytosis
-
B. Budding
-
C. Fusion
-
D. Lysis
**Answer:
C. Fusion**
71.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing mononucleosis-like symptoms
and is associated with the development of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)?
-
A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
-
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
-
C. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
-
D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
**Answer:
B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)**
72.
Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the West Nile virus?
-
A. Mosquito bites
-
B. Sexual contact
-
C. Airborne droplets
-
D. Contaminated food
**Answer:
A. Mosquito bites**
73.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing the common cold and
bronchiolitis in infants?
-
A. Coronaviridae
-
B. Adenoviridae
-
C. Picornaviridae
-
D. Paramyxoviridae
**Answer:
B. Adenoviridae**
74.
Question: What is the term for the process by which viral RNA is translated
directly into protein without the need for reverse transcription?
-
A. Transcription
-
B. Translation
-
C. Replication
-
D. Reverse transcription
**Answer:
B. Translation**
75.
Question: Which virus is associated with causing a severe respiratory illness
known as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?
-
A. Influenza virus
-
B. Coronavirus
-
C. Rhinovirus
-
D. Paramyxovirus
**Answer:
B. Coronavirus**
76.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cleaving and
processing viral polyproteins into individual functional proteins during the
replication of coronaviruses?
-
A. Protease
-
B. Polymerase
-
C. Helicase
-
D. Reverse transcriptase
**Answer:
A. Protease**
77.
Question: Which virus is responsible for causing German measles or rubella?
-
A. Rubi virus
-
B. Parvovirus
-
C. Rubula virus
-
D. Togavirus
**Answer:
A. Rubi virus**
78.
Question: What is the primary target of the measles virus in the human body?
-
A. Liver cells
-
B. Respiratory epithelial cells
-
C. Immune system cells
-
D. Nervous system cells
**Answer:
B. Respiratory epithelial cells**
79.
Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing cold sores, genital
herpes, and chickenpox?
-
A. Herpesviridae
-
B. Adenoviridae
-
C. Togaviridae
-
D. Picornaviridae
**Answer:
A. Herpesviridae**
80.
Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for copying RNA into
DNA during reverse transcription in retroviruses?
-
A. Reverse transcriptase
-
B. RNA polymerase
-
C. DNA ligase
-
D. Helicase
**Answer:
A. Reverse transcriptase**
Ø
IMMUNOLOGY MCQS 100
1.
Question: What is the primary function of antibodies in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Cytokine production
C.
Antigen presentation
D.
Binding to antigens and neutralization
Answer:
D. Binding to antigens and neutralization
2.
Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to T cells in the
immune system?
A.
B cells
B.
Macrophages
C.
Neutrophils
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
B. Macrophages
3.
Question: What is the primary role of T cells in the immune response?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Cell-mediated immunity
D.
Complement activation
Answer:
C. Cell-mediated immunity
4.
Question: Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions and is found
on the surface of mast cells and basophils?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
5.
Question: What is the main function of cytotoxic T cells?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Killing infected cells
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
C. Killing infected cells
6.
Question: Which type of immunity is acquired through vaccination or exposure to
an infectious agent?
A.
Innate immunity
B.
Passive immunity
C.
Adaptive immunity
D.
Natural immunity
Answer:
C. Adaptive immunity
7.
Question: What is the role of the thymus in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Maturation of T cells
C.
Maturation of B cells
D.
Phagocytosis
Answer:
B. Maturation of T cells
8.
Question: Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies in the immune
system?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Natural killer cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
B. B cells
9.
Question: What is the process by which immune cells engulf and digest foreign
particles or cells?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Exocytosis
C.
Endocytosis
D.
Pinocytosis
Answer:
A. Phagocytosis
10.
Question: Which type of immunity is provided by the transfer of antibodies from
mother to infant through breast milk or placenta?
-
A. Innate immunity
-
B. Passive immunity
-
C. Adaptive immunity
-
D. Acquired immunity
**Answer:
B. Passive immunity**
11.
Question: What is the primary function of helper T cells in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Killing infected cells
C.
Coordinating immune responses
D.
Producing antibodies
Answer:
C. Coordinating immune responses
12.
Question: Which molecule is responsible for antigen recognition by T cells?
A.
Immunoglobulin
B.
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
C.
Complement
D.
Cytokine
Answer:
B. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
13.
Question: Which cell type is involved in the regulation of immune responses and
the prevention of autoimmune reactions?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Regulatory T cells
C.
Cytotoxic T cells
D.
Memory B cells
Answer:
B. Regulatory T cells
14.
Question: What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Killing infected cells
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
D. Antigen presentation
15.
Question: Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant in blood and is the first
to appear during an immune response?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgG
D.
IgM
Answer:
D. IgM
16.
Question: What is the function of memory cells in the immune system?
A.
Immediate response to infections
B.
Long-term protection against specific pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis of foreign particles
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens
17.
Question: Which type of immunity is conferred by the transfer of sensitized T
cells from a donor to a recipient?
A.
Passive immunity
B.
Cell-mediated immunity
C.
Adaptive immunity
D.
Innate immunity
Answer:
B. Cell-mediated immunity
18.
Question: Which cells are responsible for releasing histamine and mediating
immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Mast cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
C. Mast cells
19.
Question: What is the primary function of natural killer (NK) cells in the
immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antibody production
C.
Killing infected and cancerous cells
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
C. Killing infected and cancerous cells
20.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for producing cytokines that modulate
the activity of other immune cells?
A.
B cells
B.
T cells
C.
Natural killer cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
B. T cells
21.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in promoting inflammation and is often
elevated during allergic reactions?
A.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
B.
Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
C.
Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
D.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
Answer:
B. Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
22.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies and complement
proteins coat microorganisms, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Complementation
C.
Agglutination
D.
Neutralization
Answer:
A. Opsonization
23.
Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE antibodies and
mast cells, leading to immediate allergic responses?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
Answer:
A. Type I
24.
Question: What is the primary function of the complement system in the immune
response?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Cytolysis
C.
Antibody production
D.
T cell activation
Answer:
B. Cytolysis
25.
Question: Which cell type plays a crucial role in the surveillance for and
destruction of virus-infected cells in a non-specific manner?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Natural killer (NK) cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
C. Natural killer (NK) cells
26.
Question: What is the name of the process by which T cells and B cells undergo
a maturation and selection process to ensure self-tolerance?
A.
Clonal expansion
B.
Positive selection
C.
Negative selection
D.
Somatic recombination
Answer:
C. Negative selection
27.
Question: Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in mucosal secretions, such
as saliva and tears?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgG
Answer:
A. IgA
28.
Question: What is the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in
the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Phagocytosis
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
B. Antigen presentation
29.
Question: Which type of T cell is responsible for suppressing immune responses
to prevent autoimmunity?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Memory T cell
D.
Regulatory T cell
Answer:
D. Regulatory T cell
30.
Question: What is the name of the process by which immune cells move toward a
site of infection or injury guided by chemical signals?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Chemotaxis
C.
Diapedesis
D.
Apoptosis
Answer:
B. Chemotaxis
31.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is the first to be produced during an
immune response and is often associated with primary infections?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgM
D.
IgG
Answer:
C. IgM
32.
Question: What is the function of the thymus in the context of T cell
development?
A.
Maturation of B cells
B.
Production of antibodies
C.
Maturation of T cells
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
C. Maturation of T cells
33.
Question: Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for activating B cells
and promoting antibody production?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Memory T cell
D.
Regulatory T cell
Answer:
A. Helper T cell
34.
Question: What is the primary function of antibodies in the opsonization
process?
A.
Inhibition of viral replication
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Facilitation of phagocytosis
D.
Activation of complement
Answer:
C. Facilitation of phagocytosis
35.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for presenting antigens to B cells and
initiating the antibody response?
A.
Macrophages
B.
Dendritic cells
C.
T cells
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
B. Dendritic cells
36.
Question: What is the role of memory B cells in the immune system?
A.
Immediate response to infections
B.
Long-term protection against specific pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis of foreign particles
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens
37.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in the differentiation of T cells into
cytotoxic T cells during the immune response?
A.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
C.
Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
D.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
Answer:
A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
38.
Question: What is the function of the spleen in the immune system?
A.
Maturation of T cells
B.
Production of antibodies
C.
Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
39.
Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the formation of
immune complexes that deposit in tissues and cause inflammation?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
Answer:
C. Type III
40.
Question: What is the primary function of cytotoxic T cells in the immune
response?
-
A. Antibody production
-
B. Phagocytosis
-
C. Killing infected cells
-
D. Cytokine release
**Answer:
C. Killing infected cells**
41.
Question: What is the term for the phenomenon where a small initial exposure to
an antigen leads to a more robust immune response upon subsequent exposures?
A.
Primary response
B.
Tolerance
C.
Memory response
D.
Secondary response
Answer:
D. Secondary response
42.
Question: Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies with high
specificity for a particular antigen?
A.
Plasma cells
B.
Memory B cells
C.
Regulatory T cells
D.
Helper T cells
Answer:
A. Plasma cells
43.
Question: Which class of antibodies can cross the placenta and provide passive
immunity to the fetus?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgG
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgG
44.
Question: What is the primary function of complement proteins in the immune
system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Opsonization
D.
Cytolysis
Answer:
D. Cytolysis
45.
Question: Which cell type plays a central role in the rejection of transplanted
organs and tissues?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Regulatory T cells
C.
Memory B cells
D.
Cytotoxic T cells
Answer:
D. Cytotoxic T cells
46.
Question: What is the term for the ability of the immune system to distinguish
self from non-self?
A.
Immune tolerance
B.
Autoimmunity
C.
Immune surveillance
D.
Immunodeficiency
Answer:
A. Immune tolerance
47.
Question: Which cytokine is primarily responsible for promoting inflammation
and attracting immune cells to the site of infection or injury?
A.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
B.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
C.
Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
D.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
Answer:
C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)
48.
Question: What is the main function of the complement cascade in the immune
response?
A.
Activation of B cells
B.
Cytolysis of pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
B. Cytolysis of pathogens
49.
Question: Which cells are responsible for the production of antibodies with
diverse specificities during an immune response?
A.
Plasma cells
B.
Memory T cells
C.
Helper T cells
D.
Regulatory T cells
Answer:
A. Plasma cells
50.
Question: What is the term for the ability of an antigen to stimulate an immune
response?
A.
Immunogenicity
B.
Antigenicity
C.
Tolerance
D.
Specificity
Answer:
A. Immunogenicity
51.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is found on the surface of B cells and
serves as a receptor for antigen recognition?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
B. IgD
52.
Question: What is the primary function of the spleen in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
T cell maturation
C.
Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens
53.
Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic
T cells during the immune response?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Macrophages
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
B cells
Answer:
C. Dendritic cells
54.
Question: What is the role of toll-like receptors (TLRs) in the innate immune
response?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Activation of complement
C.
Antigen presentation
D.
Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
Answer:
D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
55.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is mainly involved in mucosal immunity and
is present in tears, saliva, and breast milk?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
A. IgA
56.
Question: What is the process by which immune cells undergo programmed cell
death, contributing to the regulation of immune responses?
A.
Apoptosis
B.
Necrosis
C.
Phagocytosis
D.
Autophagy
Answer:
A. Apoptosis
57.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is associated with allergic reactions and
plays a role in defending against parasites?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
58.
Question: What is the primary function of regulatory T cells in the immune
system?
A.
Activation of cytotoxic T cells
B.
Suppression of immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
C.
Production of antibodies
D.
Phagocytosis
Answer:
B. Suppression of immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
59.
Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves delayed responses
mediated by T cells, causing tissue damage?
A.
Type I
B.
Type II
C.
Type III
D.
Type IV
Answer:
D. Type IV
60.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies and complement
proteins coat pathogens, preventing their attachment to host cells?
-
A. Opsonization
-
B. Neutralization
-
C. Agglutination
-
D. Complementation
**Answer:
B. Neutralization**
61.
Question: What is the primary function of memory T cells in the immune system?
A.
Immediate response to infections
B.
Long-term protection against specific pathogens
C.
Phagocytosis of foreign particles
D.
Activation of complement system
Answer:
B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens
62.
Question: Which type of immunity is characterized by the transfer of antibodies
from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection?
A.
Innate immunity
B.
Passive immunity
C.
Adaptive immunity
D.
Active immunity
Answer:
B. Passive immunity
63.
Question: What is the primary function of interleukins in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antibody production
C.
Communication between immune cells
D.
Cytolysis
Answer:
C. Communication between immune cells
64.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for presenting antigens to CD4+ helper
T cells during the immune response?
A.
Macrophages
B.
B cells
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
C. Dendritic cells
65.
Question: What is the role of the complement system in inflammation?
A.
Inhibition of inflammation
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Cytolysis
D.
Suppression of cytokine release
Answer:
B. Phagocytosis
66.
Question: Which type of cells produce antibodies with a high affinity for
specific antigens during an immune response?
A.
Plasma cells
B.
Memory B cells
C.
Regulatory T cells
D.
Helper T cells
Answer:
A. Plasma cells
67.
Question: What is the term for the process by which T cells recognize antigens
presented by major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?
A.
Clonal expansion
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Somatic recombination
D.
T cell activation
Answer:
D. T cell activation
68.
Question: Which class of antibodies is involved in the neutralization of toxins
produced by bacteria?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgG
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgG
69.
Question: What is the role of macrophages in the immune system?
A.
Antibody production
B.
Phagocytosis
C.
Activation of T cells
D.
Mast cell degranulation
Answer:
B. Phagocytosis
70.
Question: Which cytokine is responsible for promoting the differentiation of B
cells into plasma cells during the immune response?
-
A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
-
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
-
C. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
-
D. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
**Answer:
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)**
71.
Question: What is the primary function of perforin in the immune response?
A.
Inhibition of viral replication
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Facilitation of phagocytosis
D.
Induction of cytolysis in target cells
Answer:
D. Induction of cytolysis in target cells
72.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is involved in the mucosal immune response
and is found in high concentrations in saliva and respiratory secretions?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgG
Answer:
A. IgA
73.
Question: What is the term for the process by which immune cells move from the
bloodstream into tissues in response to inflammatory signals?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Chemotaxis
C.
Diapedesis
D.
Apoptosis
Answer:
C. Diapedesis
74.
Question: Which type of T cell plays a role in suppressing immune responses and
preventing excessive reactions?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Memory T cell
D.
Regulatory T cell
Answer:
D. Regulatory T cell
75.
Question: What is the primary function of the complement component C3b in the
immune system?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization
C.
Cytolysis
D.
Antibody production
Answer:
A. Opsonization
76.
Question: Which cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of
antibodies?
A.
T cells
B.
B cells
C.
Natural killer cells
D.
Macrophages
Answer:
B. B cells
77.
Question: What is the role of the immunoglobulin IgD in the immune system?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Mast cell degranulation
D.
Receptor on the surface of B cells
Answer:
D. Receptor on the surface of B cells
78.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in the differentiation of B cells into
plasma cells during the immune response?
A.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
C.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
D.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
Answer:
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
79.
Question: What is the main function of the natural killer (NK) cells in the
immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antibody production
C.
Killing infected and cancerous cells
D.
Antigen presentation
Answer:
C. Killing infected and cancerous cells
80.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is primarily responsible for providing
passive immunity to newborns through breastfeeding?
-
A. IgA
-
B. IgD
-
C. IgE
-
D. IgG
**Answer:
D. IgG**
81.
Question: What is the primary function of the CD4 co-receptor on T cells?
A.
Antigen recognition
B.
Activation of cytotoxic T cells
C.
Binding to MHC class I molecules
D.
Interaction with MHC class II molecules
Answer:
D. Interaction with MHC class II molecules
82.
Question: Which type of immunity is provided by the transfer of sensitized T
cells from a donor to a recipient?
A.
Passive immunity
B.
Cell-mediated immunity
C.
Innate immunity
D.
Adaptive immunity
Answer:
B. Cell-mediated immunity
83.
Question: What is the role of the complement component C5a in the immune
response?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Chemotaxis
C.
Cytolysis
D.
Neutralization
Answer:
B. Chemotaxis
84.
Question: Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for directly killing
infected host cells?
A.
Helper T cell
B.
Cytotoxic T cell
C.
Regulatory T cell
D.
Memory T cell
Answer:
B. Cytotoxic T cell
85.
Question: What is the function of antibodies in the process of agglutination?
A.
Facilitation of phagocytosis
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Binding to antigens and forming clumps
D.
Activation of complement
Answer:
C. Binding to antigens and forming clumps
86.
Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic
T cells during the immune response?
A.
Helper T cells
B.
Macrophages
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
B cells
Answer:
C. Dendritic cells
87.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies enhance the
phagocytosis of microorganisms by immune cells?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization
C.
Agglutination
D.
Complementation
Answer:
A. Opsonization
88.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant in the mucous
membranes and provides localized defense against pathogens?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
A. IgA
89.
Question: What is the primary function of Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha
(TNF-alpha) in the immune response?
A.
Activation of B cells
B.
Chemotaxis of immune cells
C.
Cytolysis of pathogens
D.
Suppression of inflammation
Answer:
B. Chemotaxis of immune cells
90.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for the secretion of antibodies in
response to a secondary exposure to an antigen?
-
A. Plasma cells
-
B. Memory B cells
-
C. Regulatory T cells
-
D. Helper T cells
**Answer:
A. Plasma cells**
91.
Question: What is the main function of IgE antibodies in the immune response?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization of toxins
C.
Induction of phagocytosis
D.
Mediation of allergic reactions
Answer:
D. Mediation of allergic reactions
92.
Question: Which cell type is primarily responsible for presenting antigens to
CD4+ helper T cells during the immune response?
A.
Macrophages
B.
B cells
C.
Dendritic cells
D.
Natural killer cells
Answer:
A. Macrophages
93.
Question: What is the term for the phenomenon where antibodies and antigens
form insoluble complexes that precipitate out of solution?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Agglutination
C.
Complementation
D.
Neutralization
Answer:
B. Agglutination
94.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is involved in the defense against
parasitic infections and allergic responses?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
95.
Question: What is the primary function of toll-like receptors (TLRs) in the
innate immune response?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Activation of complement
C.
Antigen presentation
D.
Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
Answer:
D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
96.
Question: Which cytokine is involved in promoting the differentiation of B
cells into memory B cells during the immune response?
A.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
B.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
C.
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
D.
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)
Answer:
B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
97.
Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies prevent the
attachment of pathogens to host cells?
A.
Opsonization
B.
Neutralization
C.
Agglutination
D.
Complementation
Answer:
B. Neutralization
98.
Question: Which immunoglobulin class is found on the surface of mast cells and
basophils and is involved in allergic reactions?
A.
IgA
B.
IgD
C.
IgE
D.
IgM
Answer:
C. IgE
99.
Question: What is the primary function of the Major Histocompatibility Complex
(MHC) in the immune system?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Antigen presentation
C.
Complement activation
D.
Cytokine release
Answer:
B. Antigen presentation
100.
Question: Which cell type is responsible for the production of antibodies with
high specificity for a particular antigen during the secondary immune response?
-
A. Plasma cells
-
B. Memory B cells
-
C. Regulatory T cells
-
D. Helper T cells
**Answer:
B. Memory B cells**
Ø
CYTOLOGY 80 MCQS
1.
Question: What is the primary function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in a
cell?
A.
Synthesis of ribosomal RNA
B.
Lipid synthesis and detoxification
C.
Protein synthesis
D.
ATP production
Answer:
C. Protein synthesis
2.
Question: Which cellular organelle is responsible for the breakdown of cellular
waste and damaged organelles?
A.
Golgi apparatus
B.
Lysosome
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Nucleus
Answer:
B. Lysosome
3.
Question: What is the main function of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
ATP synthesis
B.
Cellular respiration
C.
Storage of genetic information
D.
Protein synthesis
Answer:
C. Storage of genetic information
4.
Question: Which structure is responsible for the production of ribosomal RNA
(rRNA) in a cell?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Mitochondria
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
A. Nucleolus
5.
Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A.
G1 phase
B.
S phase
C.
G2 phase
D.
M phase
Answer:
B. S phase
6.
Question: What is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell?
A.
Synthesis of proteins
B.
Energy production (ATP synthesis)
C.
Modifying and packaging proteins
D.
Lipid synthesis
Answer:
B. Energy production (ATP synthesis)
7.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for maintaining cell shape,
providing structural support, and facilitating cell movement?
A.
Microtubules
B.
Microfilaments
C.
Intermediate filaments
D.
Centrioles
Answer:
A. Microtubules
8.
Question: What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Protein synthesis
B.
Lipid synthesis
C.
Modification and packaging of proteins
D.
Energy production
Answer:
C. Modification and packaging of proteins
9.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the separation of chromosomes
during cell division?
A.
Centriole
B.
Lysosome
C.
Nucleus
D.
Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
A. Centriole
10.
Question: What is the function of the cell membrane (plasma membrane) in a
cell?
-
A. Control of substances entering and leaving the cell
-
B. Synthesis of ATP
-
C. Storage of genetic information
-
D. Protein synthesis
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**Answer:
A. Control of substances entering and leaving the cell**
11.
Question: What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(SER) in a cell?
A.
Protein synthesis
B.
Lipid synthesis and detoxification
C.
Ribosomal RNA synthesis
D.
ATP production
Answer:
B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification
12.
Question: Which cellular organelle is responsible for generating energy through
cellular respiration?
A.
Lysosome
B.
Nucleus
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
C. Mitochondria
13.
Question: What is the main function of peroxisomes in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Protein synthesis
B.
Lipid synthesis
C.
Detoxification and breakdown of fatty acids
D.
Ribosomal RNA synthesis
Answer:
C. Detoxification and breakdown of fatty acids
14.
Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division (mitosis) occur?
A.
G1 phase
B.
S phase
C.
G2 phase
D.
M phase
Answer:
D. M phase
15.
Question: What is the function of the cytoskeleton in a cell?
A.
Storage of genetic information
B.
Synthesis of ATP
C.
Structural support, cell shape, and movement
D.
Modification and packaging of proteins
Answer:
C. Structural support, cell shape, and movement
16.
Question: Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of cellular proteins?
A.
Golgi apparatus
B.
Lysosome
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Nucleolus
Answer:
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
17.
Question: What is the role of centrosomes in cell division?
A.
Synthesis of ribosomal RNA
B.
Formation of microtubules and organization of spindle fibers
C.
Lipid synthesis
D.
Protein synthesis
Answer:
B. Formation of microtubules and organization of spindle fibers
18.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the transport of materials
within the cell and between the cell and its environment?
A.
Centriole
B.
Nucleus
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Vesicles and the endomembrane system
Answer:
D. Vesicles and the endomembrane system
19.
Question: What is the function of the nuclear envelope in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Control of substances entering and leaving the cell
B.
Synthesis of ATP
C.
Separation of chromosomes during cell division
D.
Enclosing and protecting the nucleus
Answer:
D. Enclosing and protecting the nucleus
20.
Question: What is the term for the movement of water across a selectively
permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of
higher solute concentration?
-
A. Osmosis
-
B. Active transport
-
C. Diffusion
-
D. Facilitated diffusion
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**Answer:
A. Osmosis**
21.
Question: What is the primary function of the nucleolus in a cell?
A.
Synthesis of ATP
B.
Storage of genetic information
C.
Production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D.
Detoxification
Answer:
C. Production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
22.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the synthesis and
packaging of secretory vesicles?
A.
Centriole
B.
Nucleus
C.
Golgi apparatus
D.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
C. Golgi apparatus
23.
Question: What is the term for the process by which cells engulf large
particles or other cells by wrapping pseudopodia around them?
A.
Phagocytosis
B.
Pinocytosis
C.
Exocytosis
D.
Endocytosis
Answer:
A. Phagocytosis
24.
Question: Which organelle contains enzymes involved in the breakdown of
cellular debris and foreign substances, acting as the "digestive
system" of the cell?
A.
Peroxisome
B.
Lysosome
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
B. Lysosome
25.
Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for mitosis,
and cellular organelles duplicate?
A.
G1 phase
B.
S phase
C.
G2 phase
D.
M phase
Answer:
C. G2 phase
26.
Question: What is the function of microfilaments in the cytoskeleton of a cell?
A.
Structural support
B.
Formation of cilia and flagella
C.
Facilitating cell movement
D.
Storage of genetic information
Answer:
C. Facilitating cell movement
27.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the synthesis of steroid
hormones and detoxification of drugs and poisons?
A.
Lysosome
B.
Peroxisome
C.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
D.
Nucleus
Answer:
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
28.
Question: What is the term for the semi-fluid substance that fills the interior
of the cell and surrounds organelles?
A.
Cytoskeleton
B.
Cytosol
C.
Cytoplasm
D.
Nucleoplasm
Answer:
C. Cytoplasm
29.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the synthesis of
ribosomal RNA and the assembly of ribosomes?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Golgi apparatus
D.
Mitochondria
Answer:
A. Nucleolus
30.
Question: What is the function of the nuclear pore complex in a eukaryotic
cell?
-
A. Facilitating the movement of ions across the nuclear envelope
-
B. Regulating the passage of molecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm
-
C. Synthesizing ribosomal RNA
-
D. Detoxification processes
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**Answer:
B. Regulating the passage of molecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm**
31.
Question: What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?
A.
Synthesis of lipids
B.
ATP production
C.
Protein synthesis
D.
Detoxification
Answer:
C. Protein synthesis
32.
Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the regulation of gene
expression and the synthesis of RNA?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Nucleus
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
C. Nucleus
33.
Question: What is the primary function of the cytosol in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Energy production
B.
Protein synthesis
C.
Cellular respiration
D.
Storage of genetic information
Answer:
B. Protein synthesis
34.
Question: In which organelle does cellular respiration occur, leading to the
production of ATP?
A.
Golgi apparatus
B.
Lysosome
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Peroxisome
Answer:
C. Mitochondria
35.
Question: What is the term for the movement of molecules from an area of higher
concentration to an area of lower concentration, without the use of energy?
A.
Osmosis
B.
Active transport
C.
Diffusion
D.
Facilitated diffusion
Answer:
C. Diffusion
36.
Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the formation of spindle
fibers during cell division?
A.
Centriole
B.
Nucleus
C.
Endoplasmic reticulum
D.
Golgi apparatus
Answer:
A. Centriole
37.
Question: What is the role of the nuclear membrane in a eukaryotic cell?
A.
Synthesis of ATP
B.
Regulation of gene expression
C.
Separation of chromosomes during cell division
D.
Control of substances entering and leaving the nucleus
Answer:
D. Control of substances entering and leaving the nucleus
38.
Question: Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of phospholipids and
steroids?
A.
Nucleolus
B.
Endoplasmic reticulum
C.
Golgi apparatus
D.
Peroxisome
Answer:
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
39.
Question: What is the function of microtubules in the cytoskeleton of a cell?
A.
Structural support
B.
Facilitating cell movement
C.
Formation of cilia and flagella
D.
Detoxification processes
Answer:
A. Structural support
40.
Question: What is the term for the process by which cells engulf small
particles or fluids by forming vesicles?
-
A. Phagocytosis
-
B. Pinocytosis
-
C. Exocytosis
-
D. Endocytosis
**Answer:
B. Pinocytosis**
PAP SMEAR MCQS
1.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Pap smear?
A.
Detection of breast cancer
B.
Detection of cervical cancer and precancerous changes
C.
Diagnosis of ovarian cysts
D.
Monitoring thyroid function
Answer:
B. Detection of cervical cancer and precancerous changes
2.
Question: At what age is it recommended for women to start getting regular Pap
smears as part of cervical cancer screening?
A.
18 years
B.
25 years
C.
30 years
D.
40 years
Answer:
B. 25 years
3.
Question: What is the recommended frequency for Pap smears for women with
normal results?
A.
Every year
B.
Every two years
C.
Every three years
D.
Every five years
Answer:
C. Every three years
4.
Question: What does the Pap test involve?
A.
Blood test
B.
Urine test
C.
Collection of cells from the cervix for examination
D.
Imaging study of the uterus
Answer:
C. Collection of cells from the cervix for examination
5.
Question: Which virus is a major cause of cervical cancer and is often detected
in Pap smear results?
A.
Influenza virus
B.
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
C.
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
D.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Answer:
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
6.
Question: What is the main goal of early detection through Pap smears in
cervical cancer prevention?
A.
Complete eradication of cancer cells
B.
Identification of optimal treatment options
C.
Detection and removal of precancerous lesions
D.
Determination of cancer staging
Answer:
C. Detection and removal of precancerous lesions
7.
Question: How are abnormal Pap smear results classified?
A.
Grade I
B.
Grade II
C.
Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) and high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
D.
Stage 1, Stage 2, and Stage 3
Answer:
C. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) and high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)
8.
Question: What is the recommended follow-up for women with abnormal Pap smear
results indicating high-grade changes?
A.
Repeat Pap smear in one year
B.
Colposcopy and biopsy
C.
Immediate hysterectomy
D.
Hormonal therapy
Answer:
B. Colposcopy and biopsy
9.
Question: How does the Pap smear contribute to the prevention of cervical
cancer?
A.
By directly treating precancerous lesions
B.
By preventing the development of human papillomavirus (HPV)
C.
By identifying and treating precancerous changes before they become cancerous
D.
By removing the entire cervix
Answer:
C. By identifying and treating precancerous changes before they become
cancerous
10.
Question: What is the significance of an "ASCUS" result on a Pap
smear?
-
A. Presence of normal cervical cells
-
B. Indication of cancerous cells
-
C. Uncertain or atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
-
D. Detection of hormonal imbalance
**Answer:
C. Uncertain or atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance**
CERVICAL CANCER MCQ
1.
Question: What is the primary cause of cervical cancer?
A.
Smoking
B.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
C.
Hormonal imbalance
D.
Genetic factors
Answer:
B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection
2.
Question: Which type of HPV is most strongly associated with the development of
cervical cancer?
A.
HPV type 6
B.
HPV type 11
C.
High-risk HPV types, especially 16 and 18
D.
Low-risk HPV types, especially 6 and 11
Answer:
C. High-risk HPV types, especially 16 and 18
3.
Question: What is the role of the HPV vaccine in cervical cancer prevention?
A.
Treatment of existing HPV infections
B.
Prevention of all HPV types
C.
Prevention of high-risk HPV types, including 16 and 18
D.
Cure for cervical cancer
Answer:
C. Prevention of high-risk HPV types, including 16 and 18
4.
Question: Which of the following is a known risk factor for the development of
cervical cancer?
A.
Early menopause
B.
Hormone replacement therapy
C.
Multiple sexual partners
D.
Regular Pap smear screenings
Answer:
C. Multiple sexual partners
5.
Question: What is the purpose of a colposcopy in the evaluation of cervical
abnormalities?
A.
Removal of the cervix
B.
Visualization and biopsy of the cervix
C.
Hormone therapy
D.
Pap smear collection
Answer:
B. Visualization and biopsy of the cervix
6.
Question: How does the FIGO (International Federation of Gynaecology and
Obstetrics) staging system classify the extent of cervical cancer?
A.
Stage 0, Stage I, Stage II, Stage III, Stage IV
B.
Grade I, Grade II, Grade III
C.
Localized, Regional, Distant
D.
Low-risk, Intermediate-risk, High-risk
Answer:
A. Stage 0, Stage I, Stage II, Stage III, Stage IV
7.
Question: What is the most common histological type of cervical cancer?
A.
Adenocarcinoma
B.
Squamous cell carcinoma
C.
Small cell carcinoma
D.
Neuroendocrine carcinoma
Answer:
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
8.
Question: What is the recommended age for initiating cervical cancer screening
with Pap smears in most guidelines?
A.
18 years
B.
25 years
C.
30 years
D.
40 years
Answer:
B. 25 years
9.
Question: What is the primary treatment for early-stage cervical cancer?
A.
Chemotherapy
B.
Hysterectomy
C.
Radiation therapy
D.
Hormone therapy
Answer:
B. Hysterectomy
10.
Question: What is the main purpose of lymph node dissection in cervical cancer
surgery?
-
A. To remove cancerous cells from lymph nodes
-
B. To assess the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes
-
C. To prevent the recurrence of cancer
-
D. To improve cosmetic outcomes
**Answer:
B. To assess the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes**
11.
Question: Which of the following is a symptom commonly associated with advanced
cervical cancer?
-
A. Irregular menstrual cycles
-
B. Vaginal bleeding after intercourse
-
C. Breast tenderness
-
D. Migraine headaches
**Answer:
B. Vaginal bleeding after intercourse**
12.
Question: What is the role of a cone biopsy (conization) in the diagnosis and
treatment of cervical abnormalities?
-
A. Removal of the entire uterus
-
B. Removal of the ovaries
-
C. Removal of a cone-shaped piece of the cervix for examination
-
D. Chemotherapy administration
**Answer:
C. Removal of a cone-shaped piece of the cervix for examination**
13.
Question: How does cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) correlate with the
development of cervical cancer?
-
A. CIN is a benign condition unrelated to cancer.
-
B. CIN represents precancerous changes in the cervical cells.
-
C. CIN is an early stage of invasive cervical cancer.
-
D. CIN is only associated with adenocarcinoma, not squamous cell carcinoma.
**Answer:
B. CIN represents precancerous changes in the cervical cells.**
14.
Question: What is the recommended follow-up for women with cervical
intraepithelial neoplasia 1 (CIN 1) on biopsy?
-
A. Immediate hysterectomy
-
B. Repeat Pap smear in one year
-
C. Colposcopy and biopsy
-
D. Hormone replacement therapy
**Answer:
B. Repeat Pap smear in one year**
15.
Question: Which stage of cervical cancer involves invasion beyond the uterus
but not reaching the pelvic wall or the lower third of the vagina?
-
A. Stage I
-
B. Stage II
-
C. Stage III
-
D. Stage IV
**Answer:
B. Stage II**
16.
Question: What is the primary purpose of adjuvant therapy in the treatment of
cervical cancer?
-
A. To improve cosmetic outcomes
-
B. To prevent the recurrence of cancer
-
C. To remove cancerous cells from lymph nodes
-
D. To assess the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes
**Answer:
B. To prevent the recurrence of cancer**
17.
Question: What is the significance of the Papanicolaou (Pap) smear in cervical
cancer screening?
-
A. It directly detects HPV infection.
-
B. It identifies specific genetic mutations in cervical cells.
-
C. It assesses the hormonal status of the cervix.
-
D. It detects abnormal changes in cervical cells before cancer develops.
**Answer:
D. It detects abnormal changes in cervical cells before cancer develops.**
18.
Question: Which modality is commonly used for the imaging evaluation of
cervical cancer spread to distant organs?
-
A. Computed tomography (CT) scan
-
B. Mammography
-
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
-
D. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
**Answer:
D. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan**
19.
Question: What is the role of pelvic exenteration in the management of locally
advanced cervical cancer?
-
A. To remove cancerous cells from lymph nodes
-
B. To assess the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes
-
C. To remove the uterus, cervix, and surrounding structures
-
D. To administer chemotherapy directly to the cervix
**Answer:
C. To remove the uterus, cervix, and surrounding structures**
20.
Question: What is the main goal of cervical cancer survivorship care?
-
A. To eradicate all cancerous cells
-
B. To address the physical and emotional needs of survivors
-
C. To administer ongoing aggressive treatment
-
D. To minimize the use of screening and follow-up procedures
**Answer:
B. To address the physical and emotional needs of survivors**
BREAST CANCER TEST MCQ
1.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a mammogram in breast cancer
screening?
A.
Detection of breast lumps
B.
Assessment of breast density
C.
Visualization of breast anatomy
D.
Early detection of breast cancer
Answer:
D. Early detection of breast cancer
2.
Question: At what age is it generally recommended for women to start regular
mammogram screenings for breast cancer?
A.
25 years
B.
30 years
C.
40 years
D.
50 years
Answer:
C. 40 years
3.
Question: What is the purpose of breast self-examinations (BSE) in breast
cancer awareness?
A.
To replace mammograms
B.
To diagnose breast cancer
C.
To identify changes and report them to a healthcare provider
D.
To assess breast density
Answer:
C. To identify changes and report them to a healthcare provider
4.
Question: What imaging technique uses sound waves to create images of the
breast and is sometimes used in addition to mammography for further evaluation?
A.
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
B.
Computed Tomography (CT) scan
C.
Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan
D.
Breast ultrasound
Answer:
D. Breast ultrasound
5.
Question: What is the primary goal of genetic testing for breast cancer
susceptibility genes, such as BRCA1 and BRCA2?
A.
To diagnose breast cancer
B.
To determine the stage of breast cancer
C.
To identify individuals at increased risk for hereditary breast cancer
D.
To assess response to treatment
Answer:
C. To identify individuals at increased risk for hereditary breast cancer
6.
Question: In breast cancer staging, what does the "T" represent in
the TNM classification system?
A.
Tumor size
B.
Treatment response
C.
Total lymph nodes involved
D.
Time since diagnosis
Answer:
A. Tumor size
7.
Question: Which molecular marker is commonly tested in breast cancer to
determine the presence of hormone receptors and guide hormonal therapy
decisions?
A.
HER2 (Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2)
B.
EGFR (Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor)
C.
ER (Estrogen Receptor)
D.
PD-L1 (Programmed Death-Ligand 1)
Answer:
C. ER (Estrogen Receptor)
8.
Question: What is the primary purpose of sentinel lymph node biopsy in breast
cancer surgery?
A.
To assess tumor size
B.
To determine the stage of breast cancer
C.
To remove cancerous lymph nodes
D.
To identify the first lymph nodes draining the tumor
Answer:
D. To identify the first lymph nodes draining the tumor
9.
Question: What is the most common type of breast cancer, accounting for
approximately 70-80% of cases?
A.
Inflammatory breast cancer
B.
Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
C.
Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)
D.
Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)
Answer:
C. Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)
10.
Question: What is the purpose of neoadjuvant chemotherapy in the treatment of
breast cancer?
-
A. To prevent breast cancer recurrence
-
B. To shrink tumors before surgery
-
C. To replace surgery in some cases
-
D. To enhance radiation therapy effectiveness
**Answer:
B. To shrink tumors before surgery**
Ø
HISTOPATHOLOGY 100 MCQS
1.
Question: What is the primary purpose of histopathology?
A.
Diagnosis of infectious diseases
B.
Examination of tissues for structural abnormalities and diseases
C.
Study of cell cultures
D.
Assessment of blood chemistry
Answer:
B. Examination of tissues for structural abnormalities and diseases
2.
Question: Which staining technique is commonly used in histopathology to
differentiate between cell nuclei and the surrounding cytoplasm?
A.
Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain
B.
Giemsa stain
C.
Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
D.
Masson's trichrome stain
Answer:
A. Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain
3.
Question: What does immunohistochemistry (IHC) involve in histopathology?
A.
Staining for cellular structures
B.
Staining for specific proteins using antibodies
C.
Staining for carbohydrates
D.
Staining for lipids
Answer:
B. Staining for specific proteins using antibodies
4.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "biopsy" refer to?
A.
Removal of an entire organ for examination
B.
Collection of tissue samples for microscopic examination
C.
Visualization of internal structures using imaging techniques
D.
Assessment of blood parameters
Answer:
B. Collection of tissue samples for microscopic examination
5.
Question: What is the purpose of frozen section analysis in histopathology?
A.
To stain tissues for permanent slides
B.
To quickly assess tissue during surgery for immediate diagnosis
C.
To preserve tissues for long-term storage
D.
To analyze tissues under ultraviolet light
Answer:
B. To quickly assess tissue during surgery for immediate diagnosis
6.
Question: What is the role of a pathologist in histopathology?
A.
Surgical removal of tumors
B.
Analysis and interpretation of tissue specimens
C.
Administration of chemotherapy
D.
Conducting radiological imaging studies
Answer:
B. Analysis and interpretation of tissue specimens
7.
Question: Which staining method is commonly used to highlight collagen fibers
in histopathological slides?
A.
Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain
B.
Masson's trichrome stain
C.
Giemsa stain
D.
Wright's stain
Answer:
B. Masson's trichrome stain
8.
Question: What is the term for the study of cells and tissues under the microscope
to diagnose diseases?
A.
Cytology
B.
Histology
C.
Microbiology
D.
Radiology
Answer:
B. Histology
9.
Question: What does the term "histopathological grading" refer to?
A.
Determining the age of tissues
B.
Assessing the spread of cancer
C.
Evaluating the degree of differentiation of tumor cells
D.
Identifying infectious agents in tissues
Answer:
C. Evaluating the degree of differentiation of tumor cells
10.
Question: What is the purpose of using special stains in histopathology?
-
A. To enhance tissue preservation
-
B. To differentiate between benign and malignant tumors
-
C. To remove artifacts from tissue sections
-
D. To improve the visibility of normal cells
**Answer:
B. To differentiate between benign and malignant tumors**
11.
Question: What is the term for the microscopic examination of cells shed or
scraped from a tissue surface for diagnostic purposes?
-
A. Histology
-
B. Cytology
-
C. Immunohistochemistry
-
D. Biopsy
**Answer:
B. Cytology**
12.
Question: Which of the following stains is commonly used for highlighting
acidic components like mucin in histopathology?
-
A. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
-
B. Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain
-
C. Wright's stain
-
D. Giemsa stain
**Answer:
A. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain**
13.
Question: What is the purpose of using immunofluorescence in histopathology?
-
A. To visualize structures under ultraviolet light
-
B. To stain cell nuclei
-
C. To enhance tissue preservation
-
D. To differentiate between benign and malignant tumors
**Answer:
A. To visualize structures under ultraviolet light**
14.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "in situ" indicate
when describing a lesion or tumor?
-
A. Spread to nearby tissues
-
B. Limited to the original site without invasion
-
C. Presence of necrosis
-
D. Metastasis to distant organs
**Answer:
B. Limited to the original site without invasion**
15.
Question: What is the purpose of a fine-needle aspiration (FNA) in
histopathology?
-
A. Collection of tissue samples for frozen section analysis
-
B. Removal of entire tumors
-
C. Removal of lymph nodes for examination
-
D. Aspiration of cells for cytological evaluation
**Answer:
D. Aspiration of cells for cytological evaluation**
16.
Question: What does the term "tumor margin" refer to in
histopathology?
-
A. The size of the tumor
-
B. The outer boundary of the excised tumor in relation to normal tissue
-
C. The grade of tumor differentiation
-
D. The degree of tumor invasion
**Answer:
B. The outer boundary of the excised tumor in relation to normal tissue**
17.
Question: Which type of tissue processing technique involves embedding tissues
in paraffin wax for sectioning and staining?
-
A. Cryosectioning
-
B. Freeze-fracture
-
C. Paraffin embedding
-
D. Plastic embedding
**Answer:
C. Paraffin embedding**
18.
Question: What is the primary advantage of immunohistochemistry (IHC) in
comparison to routine histological staining?
-
A. Improved tissue preservation
-
B. Rapid staining process
-
C. Specific identification of proteins or antigens
-
D. Visualization of cellular structures
**Answer:
C. Specific identification of proteins or antigens**
19.
Question: What is the purpose of a Hirschsprung disease biopsy in
histopathology?
-
A. To assess lung function
-
B. To evaluate gastrointestinal motility
-
C. To examine liver function
-
D. To diagnose neurointestinal disorders
**Answer:
B. To evaluate gastrointestinal motility**
20.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "hyperplasia" refer
to?
-
A. Abnormal cell growth forming a mass
-
B. Increase in the size of cells
-
C. Increase in the number of cells in a tissue
-
D. Development of tumors
**Answer:
C. Increase in the number of cells in a tissue**
21.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a special stain like Masson's
trichrome in histopathology?
-
A. Staining cell nuclei
-
B. Highlighting collagen fibers
-
C. Identifying lipid droplets
-
D. Differentiating between benign and malignant cells
**Answer:
B. Highlighting collagen fibers**
22.
Question: Which staining method is commonly used to visualize microorganisms
such as bacteria and fungi in tissue sections?
-
A. Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain
-
B. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
-
C. Gram stain
-
D. Giemsa stain
**Answer:
C. Gram stain**
23.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "metaplasia" refer
to?
-
A. Transformation of cells into cancerous cells
-
B. Change in the type of differentiated cells
-
C. Increase in the number of cells
-
D. Replacement of one mature cell type with another
**Answer:
D. Replacement of one mature cell type with another**
24.
Question: What is the purpose of using the TUNEL assay in histopathology?
-
A. Detection of apoptosis in tissue sections
-
B. Visualization of cell nuclei
-
C. Staining for connective tissue fibers
-
D. Identification of infectious agents
**Answer:
A. Detection of apoptosis in tissue sections**
25.
Question: Which of the following is a common application of fluorescence in
situ hybridization (FISH) in histopathology?
-
A. Staining cell nuclei
-
B. Detection of specific DNA sequences or gene abnormalities
-
C. Highlighting collagen fibers
-
D. Identifying cellular organelles
**Answer:
B. Detection of specific DNA sequences or gene abnormalities**
26.
Question: What is the primary disadvantage of frozen section analysis in
histopathology compared to formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue sections?
-
A. Inability to stain for proteins
-
B. Limited tissue preservation
-
C. Longer processing time
-
D. Lack of cellular detail
**Answer:
B. Limited tissue preservation**
27.
Question: Which of the following stains is commonly used to visualize amyloid
deposits in tissue sections?
-
A. Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain
-
B. Congo red stain
-
C. Wright's stain
-
D. Giemsa stain
**Answer:
B. Congo red stain**
28.
Question: What is the role of electron microscopy in histopathology?
-
A. Visualization of cellular structures at the molecular level
-
B. Staining for specific proteins
-
C. Rapid assessment of tissue during surgery
-
D. Detection of cell nuclei
**Answer:
A. Visualization of cellular structures at the molecular level**
29.
Question: What does the term "granuloma" refer to in histopathology?
-
A. A benign tumor
-
B. A type of fungal infection
-
C. A collection of immune cells
-
D. Abnormal cell growth forming a mass
**Answer:
C. A collection of immune cells**
30.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a histochemical stain like PAS
(Periodic acid-Schiff) in histopathology?
-
A. Visualization of connective tissue fibers
-
B. Detection of infectious agents
-
C. Staining for mucin and glycogen
-
D. Identification of specific DNA sequences
**Answer:
C. Staining for mucin and glycogen**
31.
Question: What is the term for a tissue or organ that appears normal under the
microscope but is functionally impaired?
-
A. Hyperplasia
-
B. Dysplasia
-
C. Neoplasia
-
D. Pseudoneoplasia
**Answer:
D. Pseudoneoplasia**
32.
Question: Which of the following stains is commonly used to highlight reticular
fibers in histopathology?
-
A. Masson's trichrome stain
-
B. Wright's stain
-
C. Congo red stain
-
D. Giemsa stain
**Answer:
A. Masson's trichrome stain**
33.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "dysplasia" indicate?
-
A. Increase in cell number
-
B. Replacement of one cell type with another
-
C. Change in the size and shape of cells
-
D. Inflammation in tissues
**Answer:
C. Change in the size and shape of cells**
34.
Question: What is the primary purpose of the Ziehl-Neelsen stain in
histopathology?
-
A. Detection of fungal infections
-
B. Identification of viral particles
-
C. Visualization of acid-fast bacteria, like Mycobacterium tuberculosis
-
D. Staining cell nuclei
**Answer:
C. Visualization of acid-fast bacteria, like Mycobacterium tuberculosis**
35.
Question: What does the term "cryosectioning" involve in
histopathology?
-
A. Preservation of tissues in liquid nitrogen
-
B. Embedding tissues in paraffin wax
-
C. Rapid freezing and sectioning of tissues for examination
-
D. Staining for specific proteins using antibodies
**Answer:
C. Rapid freezing and sectioning of tissues for examination**
36.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a H&E stain in histopathology?
-
A. Visualization of cell nuclei
-
B. Highlighting collagen fibers
-
C. Staining for specific proteins
-
D. Differentiating between benign and malignant cells
**Answer:
A. Visualization of cell nuclei**
37.
Question: What is the significance of the Warthin-Starry stain in
histopathology?
-
A. Detection of Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsies
-
B. Visualization of fungi in tissue sections
-
C. Identification of viral particles
-
D. Staining for amyloid deposits
**Answer:
A. Detection of Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsies**
38.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "angiogenesis" refer
to?
-
A. Formation of new blood vessels
-
B. Inflammation in blood vessels
-
C. Degeneration of blood vessels
-
D. Formation of blood clots
**Answer:
A. Formation of new blood vessels**
39.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a toluidine blue stain in
histopathology?
-
A. Detection of fungal infections
-
B. Identification of viral particles
-
C. Visualization of mast cells and basophils
-
D. Staining for mucin
**Answer:
C. Visualization of mast cells and basophils**
40.
Question: Which of the following is a common fixative used in histopathology to
preserve tissues for examination?
-
A. Acetone
-
B. Methanol
-
C. Formaldehyde
-
D. Xylene
**Answer:
C. Formaldehyde**
41.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Gomori methenamine silver (GMS)
stain in histopathology?
A.
Visualization of connective tissue fibers
B.
Detection of Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsies
C.
Identification of fungal elements
D.
Staining for mucin
Answer:
C. Identification of fungal elements
42.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "langerhans cells"
refer to?
A.
Immune cells in the skin and mucous membranes
B.
Cells found in the liver
C.
Red blood cells
D.
Cells in the nervous system
Answer:
A. Immune cells in the skin and mucous membranes
43.
Question: What is the significance of the Jones silver stain in renal
histopathology?
A.
Identification of amyloid deposits
B.
Visualization of glomerular basement membrane
C.
Detection of viral particles
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of glomerular basement membrane
44.
Question: What does the term "mucinous carcinoma" refer to in
histopathology?
A.
A type of melanoma
B.
A subtype of breast cancer characterized by mucin production
C.
Cancer of the liver
D.
Cancer of the colon
Answer:
B. A subtype of breast cancer characterized by mucin production
45.
Question: What is the purpose of a periodic acid-methenamine-silver (PAMS)
stain in histopathology?
A.
Identification of fungal elements
B.
Visualization of collagen fibers
C.
Detection of viral particles
D.
Staining for mucin
Answer:
A. Identification of fungal elements
46.
Question: Which staining technique is commonly used to visualize reticulin
fibers in histopathological sections?
A.
Masson's trichrome stain
B.
Wright's stain
C.
Silver impregnation stain
D.
Giemsa stain
Answer:
C. Silver impregnation stain
47.
Question: What is the primary role of a pathologist in the analysis of
histopathological specimens?
A.
Surgical removal of tumors
B.
Collection of tissue samples
C.
Analysis and interpretation of tissue specimens
D.
Administration of chemotherapy
Answer:
C. Analysis and interpretation of tissue specimens
48.
Question: Which of the following stains is commonly used for highlighting
eosinophils in tissue sections?
A.
Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain
B.
Wright's stain
C.
Giemsa stain
D.
Toluidine blue stain
Answer:
B. Wright's stain
49.
Question: What is the significance of the Mallory trichrome stain in
histopathology?
A.
Visualization of mucin
B.
Detection of viral particles
C.
Highlighting collagen fibers
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
C. Highlighting collagen fibers
50.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "tumor budding" refer
to?
-
A. Rapid growth of tumors
-
B. Clusters of tumor cells at the tumor margin
-
C. Formation of new blood vessels within tumors
-
D. Metastatic spread to distant organs
**Answer:
B. Clusters of tumor cells at the tumor margin**
51.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Wright-Giemsa stain in
histopathology?
A.
Identification of viral particles
B.
Visualization of connective tissue fibers
C.
Detection of fungal elements
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
D. Staining for blood cells
52.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "hyalinization" refer
to?
A.
Formation of new blood vessels
B.
Degeneration and glassy appearance of tissues
C.
Increase in the size of cells
D.
Replacement of one cell type with another
Answer:
B. Degeneration and glassy appearance of tissues
53.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Verhoeff-van Gieson stain in
histopathology?
A.
Identification of collagen fibers
B.
Visualization of elastic fibers
C.
Detection of viral particles
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of elastic fibers
54.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "myocarditis" refer
to?
A.
Inflammation of the liver
B.
Inflammation of the lung
C.
Inflammation of the heart muscle
D.
Inflammation of the kidney
Answer:
C. Inflammation of the heart muscle
55.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Papanicolaou (Pap) stain in
histopathology?
A.
Detection of fungi
B.
Visualization of cell nuclei in cytological smears
C.
Identification of collagen fibers
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of cell nuclei in cytological smears
56.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "xanthoma" refer to?
A.
A type of skin cancer
B.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages
C.
Benign tumor of the breast
D.
Cancer of the liver
Answer:
B. Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages
57.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Ziehl-Neelsen stain in
histopathology?
A.
Detection of Helicobacter pylori
B.
Visualization of acid-fast bacteria
C.
Identification of collagen fibers
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of acid-fast bacteria
58.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "osteoid" refer to?
A.
Cartilaginous tissue
B.
Hard,ony tissue
C.
Connective tissue fibers
D.
Fatty tissue
Answer:
B. Hard,ony tissue
59.
Question: What is the purpose of a Fontana-Masson stain in histopathology?
A.
Visualization of nerve fibers
B.
Identification of melanin
C.
Detection of viral particles
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Identification of melanin
60.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "spongiosis" refer
to?
A.
Accumulation of fluid in tissues
B.
Sponge-like appearance in tissues due to edema
C.
Neurological disorder
D.
Increase in cell number
Answer:
B. Sponge-like appearance in tissues due to edema
61.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain in
histopathology?
A.
Visualization of elastic fibers
B.
Detection of fungal elements and basement membrane material
C.
Identification of collagen fibers
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
B. Detection of fungal elements and basement membrane material
62.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "granulation tissue"
refer to?
A.
A type of benign tumor
B.
Newly formed tissue during wound healing
C.
A subtype of lung cancer
D.
Accumulation of immune cells
Answer:
B. Newly formed tissue during wound healing
63.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a silver stain, such as the Steiner
stain, in histopathology?
A.
Visualization of elastic fibers
B.
Detection of Helicobacter pylori
C.
Identification of collagen fibers
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Detection of Helicobacter pylori
64.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "hemosiderin" refer
to?
A.
Red blood cells
B.
Iron-containing pigment
C.
Collagen fibers
D.
Connective tissue
Answer:
B. Iron-containing pigment
65.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Giesma stain in histopathology?
A.
Identification of fungi
B.
Visualization of nerve fibers
C.
Detection of viral particles
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
A. Identification of fungi
66.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "cryptococcosis"
refer to?
A.
Fungal infection
B.
Bacterial infection
C.
Viral infection
D.
Parasitic infection
Answer:
A. Fungal infection
67.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Luxol fast blue stain in
histopathology?
A.
Identification of lipids
B.
Visualization of nerve fibers
C.
Detection of viral particles
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of nerve fibers
68.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "syncytium" refer to?
A.
Collection of immune cells
B.
Fused cells with shared cytoplasm
C.
Tumor cells
D.
Necrotic tissue
Answer:
B. Fused cells with shared cytoplasm
69.
Question: What is the significance of the Wright-Giemsa stain in
hematopathology?
A.
Detection of viral particles
B.
Visualization of blood cells in peripheral smears
C.
Identification of fungi
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of blood cells in peripheral smears
70.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "xanthelasma" refer
to?
A.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages in the skin
B.
A type of skin cancer
C.
Benign tumor of the liver
D.
Cancer of the colon
Answer:
A. Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages in the skin
71.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Fontana-Masson silver stain in
histopathology?
A.
Identification of collagen fibers
B.
Visualization of nerve fibers
C.
Detection of melanin in tissues
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
C. Detection of melanin in tissues
72.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "carcinoma in situ"
(CIS) refer to?
A.
Invasive cancer
B.
Cancer confined to the epithelium without invasion
C.
Benign tumor
D.
Metastatic cancer
Answer:
B. Cancer confined to the epithelium without invasion
73.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Ziehl-Neelsen stain in
histopathology?
A.
Detection of Helicobacter pylori
B.
Visualization of acid-fast bacteria, like Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C.
Identification of fungi
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of acid-fast bacteria, like Mycobacterium tuberculosis
74.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "acrochordon" refer
to?
A.
A type of skin cancer
B.
Benign tumor of the breast
C.
Skin tag or soft fibroma
D.
Cancer of the liver
Answer:
C. Skin tag or soft fibroma
75.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Wright-Giemsa stain in
histopathology?
A.
Detection of viral particles
B.
Visualization of blood cells, including red and white blood cells
C.
Identification of fungi
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of blood cells, including red and white blood cells
76.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "Langerhans cell
histiocytosis" refer to?
A.
Inflammatory skin disorder
B.
Type of leukemia
C.
Accumulation of abnormal Langerhans cells
D.
Benign tumor of the lung
Answer:
C. Accumulation of abnormal Langerhans cells
77.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Warthin-Starry silver stain in
histopathology?
A.
Visualization of nerve fibers
B.
Identification of viral particles
C.
Detection of Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsies
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
C. Detection of Helicobacter pylori in gastric biopsies
78.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "sarcoidosis" refer
to?
A.
Inflammatory disorder affecting multiple organs
B.
Autoimmune disorder of the skin
C.
Type of lymphoma
D.
Accumulation of lipids in tissues
Answer:
A. Inflammatory disorder affecting multiple organs
79.
Question: What is the significance of a Congo red stain in histopathology?
A.
Visualization of collagen fibers
B.
Identification of fungal elements
C.
Detection of amyloid deposits
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
C. Detection of amyloid deposits
80.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "squamous metaplasia"
refer to?
A.
Transformation of cells into cancerous cells
B.
Replacement of one cell type with squamous epithelial cells
C.
Increase in the size of cells
D.
Benign tumor of squamous cells
Answer:
B. Replacement of one cell type with squamous epithelial cells
81.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Gomori trichrome stain in
histopathology?
A.
Visualization of elastic fibers
B.
Detection of fungal elements
C.
Identification of collagen fibers
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
C. Identification of collagen fibers
82.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "leiomyoma" refer to?
A.
Benign tumor of smooth muscle
B.
Cancer of the liver
C.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages
D.
A type of skin cancer
Answer:
A. Benign tumor of smooth muscle
83.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a methenamine silver stain in
histopathology?
A.
Visualization of nerve fibers
B.
Detection of fungal elements
C.
Identification of collagen fibers
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Detection of fungal elements
84.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "anaplasia" refer to?
A.
A type of skin cancer
B.
Loss of differentiation in cells, associated with malignancy
C.
Accumulation of immune cells
D.
Increase in the size of cells
Answer:
B. Loss of differentiation in cells, associated with malignancy
85.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a methyl green-pyronin stain in
histopathology?
A.
Identification of viral particles
B.
Visualization of collagen fibers
C.
Detection of melanin in tissues
D.
Staining for nucleic acids in cells
Answer:
D. Staining for nucleic acids in cells
86.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "aschoff bodies"
refer to?
A.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages
B.
Structures found in the liver
C.
Characteristic of rheumatic fever in the heart tissue
D.
Tumor cells with granular appearance
Answer:
C. Characteristic of rheumatic fever in the heart tissue
87.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a mucicarmine stain in histopathology?
A.
Visualization of nerve fibers
B.
Identification of fungal elements
C.
Detection of melanin in tissues
D.
Staining for mucin in cells
Answer:
D. Staining for mucin in cells
88.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "Kaposi's sarcoma"
refer to?
A.
Skin infection
B.
Type of bone tumor
C.
Malignancy associated with human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
D.
Inflammation of the kidneys
Answer:
C. Malignancy associated with human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)
89.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a cresyl violet stain in
histopathology?
A.
Visualization of nerve fibers
B.
Detection of viral particles
C.
Identification of collagen fibers
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
A. Visualization of nerve fibers
90.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "fibroadenoma" refer
to?
A.
Benign tumor of the breast
B.
Cancer of the lung
C.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages
D.
Malignancy of connective tissue
Answer:
A. Benign tumor of the breast
91.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a reticulin stain in histopathology?
A.
Visualization of collagen fibers
B.
Detection of fungal elements
C.
Identification of reticular fibers in tissues
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
C. Identification of reticular fibers in tissues
92.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "giant cell" refer
to?
A.
Large cells with abundant cytoplasm
B.
Fused cells with shared cytoplasm
C.
Malignant cells
D.
Cells with granular appearance
Answer:
A. Large cells with abundant cytoplasm
93.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Wright's stain in histopathology?
A.
Detection of viral particles
B.
Visualization of blood cells, including red and white blood cells
C.
Identification of fungi
D.
Staining for specific proteins
Answer:
B. Visualization of blood cells, including red and white blood cells
94.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "angiosarcoma" refer
to?
A.
Malignancy of blood vessels
B.
Benign tumor of the skin
C.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages
D.
Cancer of the liver
Answer:
A. Malignancy of blood vessels
95.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a PAS-diastase stain in
histopathology?
A.
Visualization of elastic fibers
B.
Detection of viral particles
C.
Identification of glycogen in tissues
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
C. Identification of glycogen in tissues
96.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "osteosarcoma" refer
to?
A.
Malignancy of the bone
B.
Benign tumor of the breast
C.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages in bone tissue
D.
Cancer of the colon
Answer:
A. Malignancy of the bone
97.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a toluidine blue stain in
histopathology?
A.
Detection of viral particles
B.
Visualization of nerve fibers and mast cells
C.
Identification of fungal elements
D.
Staining for blood cells
Answer:
B. Visualization of nerve fibers and mast cells
98.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "basal cell
carcinoma" refer to?
A.
Malignancy of basal cells in the epidermis
B.
Benign tumor of the lung
C.
Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages in the skin
D.
Cancer of the liver
Answer:
A. Malignancy of basal cells in the epidermis
99.
Question: What is the primary purpose of a Van Gieson stain in histopathology?
A.
Visualization of nerve fibers
B.
Identification of fungal elements
C.
Detection of viral particles
D.
Staining for collagen fibers
Answer:
D. Staining for collagen fibers
100.
Question: In histopathology, what does the term "nephritis" refer to?
-
A. Inflammation of the skin
-
B. Inflammation of the lung
-
C. Inflammation of the kidney
-
D. Inflammation of the liver
**Answer:
C. Inflammation of the kidney**
Ø
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 100 MCQS
1. What is the primary
function of the respiratory system?
A. Nutrient absorption
B. Gas exchange
C. Blood filtration
D. Hormone production
Answer: B. Gas exchange
2. Which type of muscle is
voluntary and under conscious control?
A. Smooth muscle
B. Cardiac muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Involuntary muscle
Answer: C. Skeletal muscle
3. The heart is part of which
system in the human body?
A. Cardiovascular system
B. Nervous system
C. Respiratory system
D. Endocrine system
Answer: A. Cardiovascular
system
4. What is the main function
of the kidneys in the urinary system?
A. Blood circulation
B. Nutrient absorption
C. Filtration and excretion of
waste products
D. Hormone production
Answer: C. Filtration and
excretion of waste products
5. Which hormone is
responsible for regulating blood sugar levels?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Cortisol
D. Oestrogen
Answer: A. Insulin
6. What is the role of the
digestive system in the body?
A. Gas exchange
B. Nutrient absorption
C. Blood filtration
D. Muscle contraction
Answer: B. Nutrient absorption
7. Which part of the brain is
responsible for coordinating muscle movements and maintaining balance?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Thalamus
Answer: B. Cerebellum
8. What is the function of the
endocrine system?
A. Regulation of body
temperature
B. Production of antibodies
C. Secretion of hormones to
regulate body functions
D. Transport of oxygen in the
blood
Answer: C. Secretion of
hormones to regulate body functions
9. Where does the process of
digestion primarily occur in the human body?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Esophagus
D. Mouth
Answer: B. Small intestine
10. Which of the following is
a function of the integumentary system?
A. Blood circulation
B. Gas exchange
C. Protection against
pathogens and dehydration
D. Hormone production
Answer: C. Protection against
pathogens and dehydration
11. What is the primary
function of the respiratory diaphragm?
A. Pump blood to the lungs
B. Facilitate breathing by
contracting and relaxing
C. Aid in digestion
D. Produce hormones for
metabolism
Answer: B. Facilitate breathing
by contracting and relaxing
12. Which hormone is
responsible for regulating the body's sleep-wake cycle?
A. Insulin
B. Melatonin
C. Adrenaline
D. Thyroxine
Answer: B. Melatonin
13. What is the purpose of the
lymphatic system in the body?
A. Oxygen transport
B. Immune defence and fluid
balance
C. Digestion of fats
D. Muscle coordination
Answer: B. Immune defence and
fluid balance
14. The central nervous system
consists of:
A. Brain and spinal cord
B. Nerves and ganglia
C. Heart and lungs
D. Kidneys and liver
Answer: A. Brain and spinal
cord
15. Which organ is responsible
for detoxifying harmful substances in the blood?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Pancreas
Answer: B. Liver
16. What is the function of
red blood cells (erythrocytes) in the circulatory system?
A. Carry oxygen to tissues
B. Fight infections
C. Clot blood
D. Produce antibodies
Answer: A. Carry oxygen to
tissues
17. Which part of the brain is
responsible for regulating body temperature and hunger?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebrum
D. Thalamus
Answer: A. Hypothalamus
18. What is the primary
function of the large intestine?
A. Nutrient absorption
B. Water absorption and
formation of feces
C. Protein digestion
D. Gas exchange
Answer: B. Water absorption
and formation of feces
19. Which hormone is
responsible for the fight or flight response in stressful situations?
A. Insulin
B. Cortisol
C. Adrenaline (epinephrine)
D. Thyroxine
Answer: C. Adrenaline
(epinephrine)
20. Where are sweat glands
primarily found in the skin?
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Subcutaneous tissue
D. Hair follicles
Answer: A. Dermis
21. What is the primary
function of the spleen in the human body?
A. Blood clotting
B. Filtration of blood and
storage of platelets
C. Digestion of fats
D. Oxygen transport
Answer: B. Filtration of blood
and storage of platelets
22. Which hormone is
responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood?
A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C. Growth hormone
D. Estrogen
Answer: B. Parathyroid hormone
(PTH)
23. What is the purpose of the
Eustachian tube in the ear?
A. Equalize air pressure
between the middle ear and the atmosphere
B. Transmit sound waves to the
brain
C. Produce earwax for
protection
D. Regulate balance and
spatial orientation
Answer: A. Equalize air
pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere
24. The trachea is commonly
known as the:
A. Windpipe
B. Food pipe
C. Esophagus
D. Bronchus
Answer: A. Windpipe
25. What is the primary
function of the adrenal glands?
A. Regulation of blood sugar
levels
B. Production of adrenaline
and cortisol
C. Synthesis of insulin
D. Blood filtration
Answer: B. Production of
adrenaline and cortisol
26. Which of the following is
NOT a function of the skin?
A. Protection against
pathogens
B. Synthesis of vitamin D
C. Production of insulin
D. Regulation of body
temperature
Answer: C. Production of
insulin
27. Which blood vessels carry
oxygenated blood away from the heart?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
Answer: A. Arteries
28. The pituitary gland is
often referred to as the:
A. Master gland
B. Digestive gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Thyroid gland
Answer: A. Master gland
29. Where does fertilization
of an egg by sperm typically occur in the female reproductive system?
A. Ovary
B. Uterus
C. Fallopian tube
D. Cervix
Answer: C. Fallopian tube
30. Which of the following
bones is part of the axial skeleton?
A. Femur
B. Radius
C. Skull
D. Humerus
Answer: C. Skull
31. What is the function of
the cerebrospinal fluid in the central nervous system?
A. Provide nutrients to the
brain
B. Act as a shock absorber and
protect the brain
C. Transmit electrical
impulses
D. Regulate body temperature
Answer: B. Act as a shock
absorber and protect the brain
32. The structure that
separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity is called the:
A. Diaphragm
B. Pleura
C. Peritoneum
D. Mesentery
Answer: A. Diaphragm
33. What is the primary
function of the pancreas in the digestive system?
A. Production of bile
B. Regulation of blood sugar
levels
C. Digestion of proteins
D. Absorption of nutrients
Answer: B. Regulation of blood
sugar levels
34. Which of the following
statements about red bone marrow is correct?
A. Red bone marrow is
primarily found in compact bones
B. Red bone marrow produces
red and white blood cells
C. Red bone marrow is more
abundant in adults than in infants
D. Red bone marrow stores
minerals for bone strength
Answer: B. Red bone marrow
produces red and white blood cells
35. What is the purpose of the
vestibular system in the inner ear?
A. Hearing
B. Balance and spatial
orientation
C. Temperature regulation
D. Synthesis of earwax
Answer: B. Balance and spatial
orientation
36. Which of the following is
a function of the lymph nodes in the lymphatic system?
A. Filtration of blood
B. Production of antibodies
C. Storage of platelets
D. Regulation of blood
pressure
Answer: B. Production of
antibodies
37. The process by which an
egg matures and is released from the ovary is called:
A. Ovulation
B. Menstruation
C. Fertilization
D. Implantation
Answer: A. Ovulation
38. What is the primary
function of the cornea in the eye?
A. Control the amount of light
entering the eye
B. Refract light to focus it
on the retina
C. Produce tears for
lubrication
D. Change the shape of the
lens for accommodation
Answer: B. Refract light to
focus it on the retina
39. Which of the following
bones is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A. Sternum
B. Vertebra
C. Humerus
D. Skull
Answer: C. Humerus
40. What is the function of
the alveoli in the respiratory system?
A. Transport oxygen in the
blood
B. Filter air entering the
lungs
C. Exchange gases (oxygen and
carbon dioxide) with the bloodstream
D. Produce mucus for lung
protection
Answer: C. Exchange gases
(oxygen and carbon dioxide)
41. What is the function of
the thyroid gland in the endocrine system?
A. Regulation of blood sugar
levels
B. Control of metabolic rate
and energy production
C. Production of insulin
D. Maintenance of water
balance
Answer: B. Control of
metabolic rate and energy production
42. The joint between two
bones that allows movement in multiple directions is called a:
A. Hinge joint
B. Ball and socket joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Gliding joint
Answer: B. Ball and socket
joint
43. Which part of the brain is
responsible for regulating basic life functions such as heartbeat and
breathing?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Thalamus
Answer: C. Medulla oblongata
44. The epiglottis prevents
food from entering which structure during swallowing?
A. Trachea (windpipe)
B. Oesophagus
C. Stomach
D. Lungs
Answer: A. Trachea (windpipe)
45. What is the function of
the gallbladder in the digestive system?
A. Production of bile
B. Storage and concentration
of bile
C. Digestion of carbohydrates
D. Absorption of nutrients
Answer: B. Storage and
concentration of bile
46. Which blood vessels carry
deoxygenated blood back to the heart?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
Answer: B. Veins
47. The process by which cells
engulf and digest foreign particles or damaged cells is called:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Osmosis
C. Active transport
D. Pinocytosis
Answer: A. Phagocytosis
48. Where does the process of
digestion begin in the human digestive system?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Mouth
D. Oesophagus
Answer: C. Mouth
49. What is the function of
the semicircular canals in the inner ear?
A. Hearing
B. Balance and spatial
orientation
C. Temperature regulation
D. Synthesis of earwax
Answer: B. Balance and spatial
orientation
50. Which of the following is
a function of the skeletal system?
A. Regulation of body
temperature
B. Production of blood cells
C. Synthesis of hormones
D. Transport of oxygen in the
blood
Answer: B. Production of blood
cells
51. What is the primary
function of the iris in the eye?
A. Refract light to focus it
on the retina
B. Control the size of the
pupil and regulate the amount of light entering the eye
C. Produce tears for
lubrication
D. Change the shape of the
lens for accommodation
Answer: B. Control the size of
the pupil and regulate the amount of light entering the eye
52. Which of the following
bones is part of the axial skeleton?
A. Femur
B. Radius
C. Sternum
D. Clavicle
Answer: C. Sternum
53. What is the function of
the cochlea in the inner ear?
A. Balance and spatial
orientation
B. Hearing and detection of
sound waves
C. Production of earwax
D. Regulation of body
temperature
Answer: B. Hearing and
detection of sound waves
54. The joint between the
atlas and axis vertebrae allows for:
A. Flexion and extension
B. Rotation of the head
C. Circumduction
D. Abduction and adduction
Answer: B. Rotation of the
head
55. What is the primary
function of the thymus gland in the immune system?
A. Produce antibodies
B. Regulate blood sugar levels
C. Maturation of T lymphocytes
D. Filtration of blood
Answer: C. Maturation of T
lymphocytes
56. The term
"homeostasis" refers to:
A. Maintenance of a constant
internal environment
B. The study of cells
C. The process of digestion
D. Blood clotting
Answer: A. Maintenance of a
constant internal environment
57. Which part of the
respiratory system is responsible for exchanging gases with the bloodstream?
A. Bronchi
B. Alveoli
C. Trachea
D. Pharynx
Answer: B. Alveoli
58. What is the purpose of the
meninges in the central nervous system?
A. Transmit nerve impulses
B. Provide protection and
cushioning for the brain and spinal cord
C. Regulate blood pressure
D. Synthesize cerebrospinal
fluid
Answer: B. Provide protection
and cushioning for the brain and spinal cord
59. Which hormone is
responsible for regulating water balance in the body?
A. Aldosterone
B. Insulin
C. Growth hormone
D. Thyroxine
Answer: A. Aldosterone
60. The joint between the
skull and the first cervical vertebra (atlas) is known as the:
A. Ball and socket joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Suture joint
Answer: C. Pivot joint
61. What is the role of the
pineal gland in the endocrine system?
A. Regulation of blood sugar
levels
B. Production of melatonin and
regulation of sleep-wake cycle
C. Synthesis of insulin
D. Control of metabolic rate
Answer: B. Production of
melatonin and regulation of sleep-wake cycle
62. The process by which blood
vessels constrict to reduce blood flow is called:
A. Vasodilation
B. Hematopoiesis
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Hemostasis
Answer: C. Vasoconstriction
63. What is the primary
function of the malleus, incus, and stapes in the middle ear?
A. Balance and spatial
orientation
B. Amplify and transmit sound vibrations
to the inner ear
C. Equalize air pressure in
the ear
D. Produce earwax
Answer: B. Amplify and
transmit sound vibrations to the inner ear
64. Which of the following
structures is responsible for producing insulin in the pancreas?
A. Islets of Langerhans
B. Acini cells
C. Alpha cells
D. Beta cells
Answer: D. Beta cells
65. The process of breaking
down complex food molecules into simpler forms for absorption is known as:
A. Respiration
B. Digestion
C. Circulation
D. Excretion
Answer: B. Digestion
66. Which part of the eye is
responsible for detecting color and fine detail in vision?
A. Retina
B. Cornea
C. Lens
D. Sclera
Answer: A. Retina
67. What is the function of
the vas deferens in the male reproductive system?
A. Production of sperm
B. Storage of sperm
C. Transport of sperm from the
testes to the urethra
D. Synthesis of testosterone
Answer: C. Transport of sperm
from the testes to the urethra
68. The primary function of
white blood cells (leukocytes) is:
A. Oxygen transport
B. Clotting
C. Immune defense against
pathogens
D. Nutrient absorption
Answer: C. Immune defense
against pathogens
69. Which of the following is
NOT a function of the urinary system?
A. Filtration of blood
B. Regulation of electrolyte
balance
C. Production of insulin
D. Removal of waste products
from the body
Answer: C. Production of
insulin
70. What is the primary
function of the adrenal cortex?
A. Production of adrenaline
B. Regulation of blood sugar
levels
C. Synthesis of cortisol and
aldosterone
D. Filtration of blood
Answer: C. Synthesis of
cortisol and aldosterone
71. Which of the following is
a function of the parathyroid glands?
A. Regulation of blood sugar
levels
B. Control of metabolic rate
C. Regulation of calcium
levels in the blood
D. Production of insulin
Answer: C. Regulation of
calcium levels in the blood
72. The joint between the
radius and ulna bones in the forearm is an example of a:
A. Pivot joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Ball and socket joint
D. Suture joint
Answer: A. Pivot joint
73. Where does the process of
sperm maturation occur in the male reproductive system?
A. Testes
B. Epididymis
C. Vas deferens
D. Prostate gland
Answer: B. Epididymis
74. What is the primary
function of the mucus produced by the respiratory system?
A. Oxygen transport
B. Protection and moistening
of airways
C. Filtration of blood
D. Synthesis of hormones
Answer: B. Protection and
moistening of airways
75. The process by which the
body converts food into energy is known as:
A. Respiration
B. Metabolism
C. Digestion
D. Circulation
Answer: B. Metabolism
76. Which blood vessels carry
oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Venules
Answer: B. Veins
77. The term "haematopoiesis"
refers to:
A. Formation of blood cells
B. Regulation of blood
pressure
C. Digestion of nutrients
D. Synthesis of hormones
Answer: A. Formation of blood
cells
78. What is the function of
the epiglottis during swallowing?
A. Produce sound waves for
speech
B. Prevent food from entering
the trachea
C. Equalize air pressure in
the ears
D. Regulate body temperature
Answer: B. Prevent food from
entering the trachea
79. Which of the following is
a function of the lymphatic system?
A. Synthesis of insulin
B. Regulation of body
temperature
C. Immune defence and fluid
balance
D. Filtration of blood
Answer: C. Immune defence and
fluid balance
80. What is the primary
function of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas?
A. Regulation of blood
pressure
B. Synthesis of insulin
C. Production of melatonin
D. Control of metabolic rate
Answer: B. Synthesis of
insulin
81. Which of the following
structures is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid in the brain?
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Hypothalamus
C. Choroid plexus
D. Medulla oblongata
Answer: C. Choroid plexus
82. The joint between the
humerus and the ulna is an example of a:
A. Ball and socket joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Gliding joint
Answer: B. Hinge joint
83. What is the primary
function of the gallbladder in the digestive system?
A. Production of bile
B. Storage and concentration
of bile
C. Digestion of proteins
D. Absorption of nutrients
Answer: B. Storage and
concentration of bile
84. The process of converting
glucose into energy in the presence of oxygen is called:
A. Anaerobic respiration
B. Glycolysis
C. Aerobic respiration
D. Fermentation
Answer: C. Aerobic respiration
85. Which of the following
hormones is responsible for stimulating uterine contractions during childbirth?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin
Answer: C. Oxytocin
86. What is the function of
the semilunar valves in the heart?
A. Prevent backflow of blood
into the atria
B. Control the flow of blood
between the atria and ventricles
C. Regulate blood pressure
D. Direct blood to the
pulmonary and systemic circulations
Answer: D. Direct blood to the
pulmonary and systemic circulations
87. Where does the process of
nutrient absorption primarily occur in the digestive system?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Esophagus
Answer: B. Small intestine
88. Which of the following is
a function of the spleen in the lymphatic system?
A. Filtration of blood and
storage of platelets
B. Synthesis of insulin
C. Digestion of fats
D. Regulation of blood
pressure
Answer: A. Filtration of blood
and storage of platelets
89. The process of mitosis is
involved in:
A. Sperm and egg production
B. Growth and repair of body
tissues
C. Digestion of nutrients
D. Blood clotting
Answer: B. Growth and repair
of body tissues
90. What is the primary
function of the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII)?
A. Control of facial muscles
B. Hearing and balance
C. Vision
D. Taste sensation
Answer: B. Hearing and balance
91. What is the primary
function of the vas deferens in the male reproductive system?
A. Production of sperm
B. Storage of sperm
C. Transport of sperm from the
testes to the urethra
D. Synthesis of testosterone
Answer: C. Transport of sperm
from the testes to the urethra
92. The joint between the
tibia and fibula bones in the lower leg is an example of a:
A. Ball and socket joint
B. Hinge joint
C. Pivot joint
D. Syndesmosis joint
Answer: D. Syndesmosis joint
93. What is the function of
the ciliary muscle in the eye?
A. Control the size of the
pupil
B. Refract light to focus it
on the retina
C. Change the shape of the
lens for accommodation
D. Produce tears for
lubrication
Answer: C. Change the shape of
the lens for accommodation
94. The process of removing
waste products from the body is known as:
A. Digestion
B. Excretion
C. Respiration
D. Circulation
Answer: B. Excretion
95. What is the primary
function of the corpus callosum in the brain?
A. Regulation of body
temperature
B. Coordination of muscle movements
C. Communication between the
two cerebral hemispheres
D. Synthesis of
neurotransmitters
Answer: C. Communication
between the two cerebral hemispheres
96. Which of the following
hormones is responsible for stimulating the development of female secondary
sexual characteristics?
A. Testosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Progesterone
D. Prolactin
Answer: B. Estrogen
97. The term
"osmosis" refers to the movement of:
A. Water across a selectively
permeable membrane
B. Oxygen in the bloodstream
C. Nutrients in the digestive
system
D. Blood cells in the
circulatory system
Answer: A. Water across a
selectively permeable membrane
98. Which part of the brain is
responsible for processing sensory information and relaying it to the cerebral
cortex?
A. Cerebrum
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cerebellum
Answer: B. Thalamus
99. The process of converting
nitrogenous wastes into urine is primarily performed by the:
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Bladder
D. Urethra
Answer: B. Kidneys
100. What is the main function
of the mucus produced by the digestive system?
A. Protection of the stomach
lining
B. Lubrication of the
oesophagus
C. Digestion of carbohydrates
D. Absorption of nutrients
Answer: A. Protection of the
stomach lining
Ø
Clinical Pathology 100 MCQS
1. What is the primary purpose
of a complete blood count (CBC)?
A. Detection of genetic
disorders
B. Evaluation of kidney
function
C. Assessment of blood
clotting
D. Examination of cellular
elements in the blood
Answer: D. Examination of
cellular elements in the blood
2. Elevated levels of
creatinine in blood tests are often indicative of:
A. Liver dysfunction
B. Kidney dysfunction
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: B. Kidney dysfunction
3. The erythrocyte
sedimentation rate (ESR) is a measure of:
A. Blood clotting time
B. Inflammation in the body
C. Haemoglobin concentration
D. Oxygen-carrying capacity of
red blood cells
Answer: B. Inflammation in the
body
4. Which enzyme is commonly
measured to assess liver function?
A. Amylase
B. Creatine kinase
C. Aspartate aminotransferase
(AST)
D. Lipase
Answer: C. Aspartate
aminotransferase (AST)
5. The term
"haematuria" refers to:
A. Elevated white blood cell
count
B. Presence of blood in the
urine
C. Abnormal levels of
cholesterol
D. Increased platelet count
Answer: B. Presence of blood
in the urine
6. A high level of troponin in
blood tests is indicative of:
A. Liver disease
B. Kidney disease
C. Myocardial infarction
(heart attack)
D. Respiratory disorders
Answer: C. Myocardial
infarction (heart attack)
7. The term
"polyuria" refers to:
A. Excessive sweating
B. Excessive urination
C. Difficulty swallowing
D. Excessive thirst
Answer: B. Excessive urination
8. Which blood test is
commonly used to assess glucose levels over an extended period (average blood
sugar over 2-3 months)?
A. Fasting blood sugar (FBS)
B. Oral glucose tolerance test
(OGTT)
C. Glycated haemoglobin
(HbA1c)
D. Random blood sugar (RBS)
Answer: C. Glycated
haemoglobin (HbA1c)
9. The Schilling test is used
to diagnose deficiencies in which vitamin?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Vitamin B12
10. Which of the following is
a marker for liver function and is commonly elevated in conditions such as
hepatitis or cirrhosis?
A. Creatinine
B. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
C. Troponin
D. Uric acid
Answer: B. Alkaline
phosphatase (ALP)
11. The presence of which
cells in the peripheral blood is indicative of an allergic reaction or
parasitic infection?
A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes
Answer: A. Eosinophils
12. In a lipid profile test,
which lipid is often referred to as "bad cholesterol"?
A. Low-density lipoprotein
(LDL)
B. High-density lipoprotein
(HDL)
C. Triglycerides
D. VLDL cholesterol
Answer: A. Low-density
lipoprotein (LDL)
13. What does the Prothrombin
Time (PT) measure in blood clotting tests?
A. Platelet function
B. Fibrinogen levels
C. Vitamin K levels
D. The extrinsic pathway of
coagulation
Answer: D. The extrinsic
pathway of coagulation
14. Which of the following
blood types is considered the universal donor in blood transfusions?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
Answer: D. O
15. What is the primary
function of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?
A. Regulation of blood sugar
levels
B. Control of metabolic rate
C. Stimulation of red blood
cell production
D. Regulation of thyroid gland
activity
Answer: D. Regulation of
thyroid gland activity
16. The presence of which
antibody is typically assessed in autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid
arthritis?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Answer: A. IgG
17. Which laboratory test is
commonly used to evaluate kidney function and detect conditions such as
glomerulonephritis or kidney failure?
A. Alanine aminotransferase
(ALT)
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C. Serum creatinine
D. C-reactive protein (CRP)
Answer: C. Serum creatinine
18. What is the purpose of a
sputum culture test?
A. Assessing liver function
B. Detecting urinary tract
infections
C. Identifying respiratory
infections or tuberculosis
D. Evaluating glucose levels
Answer: C. Identifying
respiratory infections or tuberculosis
19. The term
"haemolysis" refers to:
A. Formation of blood cells
B. Breakdown of red blood
cells
C. Clotting of blood
D. Increase in white blood
cell count
Answer: B. Breakdown of red
blood cells
20. Which of the following is
a common marker for inflammation in the body and is measured in conditions such
as arthritis or infections?
A. Serum electrolytes
B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH)
D. Lipase
Answer: B. C-reactive protein
(CRP)
Feel free to use these
questions for educational purposes or to test your knowledge of Clinical
Pathology!
21. What is the primary
function of the D-dimer test?
A. Assessing liver function
B. Detecting deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism
C. Evaluating kidney function
D. Monitoring blood glucose
levels
Answer: B. Detecting deep vein
thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism
22. The presence of which
antibody is tested in a rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test, which is used to
diagnose syphilis?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. VDRL antibody
Answer: D. VDRL antibody
23. Which enzyme is commonly
elevated in conditions affecting the liver, heart, and skeletal muscles and is
used as a general marker of tissue damage?
A. Amylase
B. Alanine aminotransferase
(ALT)
C. Creatine kinase (CK)
D. Lipase
Answer: C. Creatine kinase
(CK)
24. What is the purpose of a
fecal occult blood test (FOBT)?
A. Assessing liver function
B. Detecting blood in the
stool
C. Identifying urinary tract
infections
D. Monitoring pancreatic
enzymes
Answer: B. Detecting blood in
the stool
25. The HbA1c test is
primarily used to monitor and manage individuals with:
A. Anaemia
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Cardiovascular disease
Answer: B. Diabetes mellitus
26. Which blood component is
primarily responsible for transporting oxygen to tissues and removing carbon
dioxide?
A. Platelets
B. White blood cells
C. Red blood cells
(erythrocytes)
D. Plasma
Answer: C. Red blood cells
(erythrocytes)
27. The Wright stain is
commonly used in the laboratory for:
A. Blood smear examination
B. Urinalysis
C. Liver function tests
D. Coagulation studies
Answer: A. Blood smear
examination
28. A blood gas analysis is
often performed to assess:
A. Blood clotting factors
B. Acid-base balance and
oxygen levels in the blood
C. Kidney function
D. Thyroid function
Answer: B. Acid-base balance
and oxygen levels in the blood
29. Which electrolyte
imbalance is associated with muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmias, and can
result from conditions such as vomiting or excessive sweating?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
30. The term
"leucocytosis" refers to an elevated count of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Neutrophils
Answer: B. White blood cells
31. Which of the following is
a tumour marker often elevated in prostate cancer and is used for monitoring
the disease?
A. CA 125
B. PSA (Prostate-Specific
Antigen)
C. CEA (Carcinoembryonic
Antigen)
D. AFP (Alpha-Fetoprotein)
Answer: B. PSA
(Prostate-Specific Antigen)
32. A blood test measuring
levels of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) is used to assess the
function of which gland?
A. Pituitary gland
B. Thyroid gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. Parathyroid gland
Answer: B. Thyroid gland
33. In the context of blood
clotting, what does the term "INR" stand for?
A. International Normalized
Ratio
B. Internal Nucleotide
Reaction
C. Inflammatory Neutrophil Response
D. Insulin Normalization Rate
Answer: A. International
Normalized Ratio
34. Which of the following is
a test commonly used to evaluate liver function and is elevated in liver
diseases such as hepatitis or cirrhosis?
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
D. Troponin
Answer: C. Alkaline
phosphatase (ALP)
35. The MCV (Mean Corpuscular
Volume) in a complete blood count (CBC) measures the average volume of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Answer: A. Red blood cells
36. What is the purpose of a
bone marrow aspiration and biopsy?
A. Evaluate kidney function
B. Assess blood clotting
factors
C. Diagnose anaemia and blood
disorders
D. Monitor cardiac enzymes
Answer: C. Diagnose anaemia
and blood disorders
37. Which of the following
conditions is associated with an increased level of bilirubin in the blood?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Haemorrhage
C. Jaundice
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: C. Jaundice
38. A blood test measuring
levels of anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) is often used in the diagnosis of:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE)
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: B. Systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE)
39. Which of the following is
a marker for inflammation and is often elevated in conditions such as
rheumatoid arthritis or inflammatory bowel disease?
A. Amylase
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation
rate (ESR)
C. Troponin
D. Uric acid
Answer: B. Erythrocyte
sedimentation rate (ESR)
40. A blood test measuring
levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is used for the diagnosis and
monitoring of:
A. Liver function
B. Heart failure
C. Thyroid function
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: B. Heart failure
41. Which of the following is
a common test used to evaluate kidney function and is a measure of the
glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
B. Creatinine kinase (CK)
C. Serum creatinine
D. Albumin
Answer: C. Serum creatinine
42. The term
"haemoptysis" refers to:
A. Coughing up blood
B. Blood in the stool
C. Blood in the urine
D. Blood in the sputum
Answer: A. Coughing up blood
43. What is the primary
function of the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in blood clotting tests?
A. Assessing platelet function
B. Evaluating fibrinogen
levels
C. Standardizing prothrombin
time across different laboratories
D. Monitoring white blood cell
activity
Answer: C. Standardizing
prothrombin time across different laboratories
44. A faecal elastase test is
commonly used for the diagnosis of:
A. Pancreatitis
B. Gastritis
C. Inflammatory bowel disease
(IBD)
D. Hepatitis
Answer: A. Pancreatitis
45. What is the primary
function of the C-reactive protein (CRP) in blood tests?
A. Marking red blood cells for
destruction
B. Assessing liver function
C. Indicating inflammation in
the body
D. Monitoring blood clotting
factors
Answer: C. Indicating
inflammation in the body
46. Which electrolyte
imbalance is associated with muscle cramps, weakness, and cardiac arrhythmias?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hyperkalaemia
Answer: C. Hypokalaemia
47. The term
"thrombocytopenia" refers to a deficiency of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma proteins
Answer: C. Platelets
48. A sputum culture and sensitivity
test is commonly performed to identify the cause of:
A. Urinary tract infections
B. Respiratory infections
C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Liver dysfunction
Answer: B. Respiratory
infections
49. The Reticulocyte Count
measures the percentage of:
A. Immature red blood cells
B. Mature red blood cells
C. White blood cells
D. Platelets
Answer: A. Immature red blood
cells
50. Which of the following is
a test used to assess the function of the exocrine pancreas and is often
elevated in conditions like cystic fibrosis?
A. Lipase
B. Amylase
C. Trypsinogen
D. Faecal elastase
Answer: D. Faecal elastase
51. What is the primary
purpose of a rheumatoid factor (RF) test in blood analysis?
A. Evaluate kidney function
B. Diagnose anemia
C. Identify autoimmune
disorders, particularly rheumatoid arthritis
D. Monitor cardiac enzymes
Answer: C. Identify autoimmune
disorders, particularly rheumatoid arthritis
52. The presence of which
antibody is often tested in a serological test for infectious mononucleosis
(mono)?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Answer: B. IgM
53. A CSF (cerebrospinal
fluid) analysis is commonly performed to diagnose conditions affecting the:
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Central nervous system
D. Lungs
Answer: C. Central nervous
system
54. The term
"hyperglycaemia" refers to elevated levels of:
A. Cholesterol in the blood
B. Glucose in the blood
C. Urea in the blood
D. Haemoglobin in the blood
Answer: B. Glucose in the
blood
55. A test measuring levels of
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is primarily used to assess the function of
the:
A. Thyroid gland
B. Adrenal gland
C. Pituitary gland
D. Parathyroid gland
Answer: C. Pituitary gland
56. The term
"dyslipidaemia" refers to abnormalities in the levels of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Lipids (cholesterol and
triglycerides) in the blood
Answer: D. Lipids (cholesterol
and triglycerides) in the blood
57. A blood test measuring
levels of troponin is often used to diagnose and monitor:
A. Liver function
B. Kidney function
C. Myocardial infarction
(heart attack)
D. Respiratory disorders
Answer: C. Myocardial
infarction (heart attack)
58. Which of the following is
a common test used to assess coagulation factors and monitor anticoagulant
therapy?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Activated Partial
Thromboplastin Time (APTT)
C. Fibrinogen assay
D. D-dimer test
Answer: A. Prothrombin Time
(PT)
59. The term
"erythropoiesis" refers to the production of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma proteins
Answer: A. Red blood cells
60. A blood test measuring
levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is commonly used for the screening and
monitoring of:
A. Liver function
B. Pregnancy-associated
complications
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Prostate cancer
Answer: B.
Pregnancy-associated complications
61. The Schilling test is used
to diagnose deficiencies in which vitamin?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Answer: B. Vitamin B12
62. A blood test measuring
levels of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies is often
associated with the diagnosis of:
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE)
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Crohn's disease
Answer: C. Rheumatoid
arthritis
63. Which of the following is
a tumour marker commonly elevated in ovarian cancer?
A. CA 125
B. PSA (Prostate-Specific
Antigen)
C. CEA (Carcinoembryonic
Antigen)
D. AFP (Alpha-Fetoprotein)
Answer: A. CA 125
64. A blood gas analysis is
often performed to assess:
A. Blood clotting factors
B. Acid-base balance and
oxygen levels in the blood
C. Kidney function
D. Thyroid function
Answer: B. Acid-base balance
and oxygen levels in the blood
65. The term
"haemolysis" refers to:
A. Formation of blood cells
B. Breakdown of red blood
cells
C. Clotting of blood
D. Increase in white blood
cell count
Answer: B. Breakdown of red
blood cells
66. A blood test measuring
levels of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is commonly used for monitoring:
A. Liver function
B. Thyroid function
C. Cancer recurrence,
especially in colorectal cancer
D. Blood glucose levels
Answer: C. Cancer recurrence,
especially in colorectal cancer
67. The term
"oliguria" refers to:
A. Excessive sweating
B. Decreased urine output
C. Excessive urination
D. Increased thirst
Answer: B. Decreased urine
output
68. A blood test measuring
levels of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is used as a marker for:
A. Liver function
B. Kidney function
C. Cardiac injury and tissue
damage
D. Pancreatic enzymes
Answer: C. Cardiac injury and
tissue damage
69. The term
"thrombophilia" refers to a tendency for:
A. Excessive bleeding
B. Blood clotting disorders
C. Abnormal white blood cell
count
D. Anaemia
Answer: B. Blood clotting
disorders
70. A blood test measuring
levels of cortisol is used to assess the function of the:
A. Pancreas
B. Adrenal gland
C. Thyroid gland
D. Pituitary gland
Answer: B. Adrenal gland
71. The term
"thrombocytosis" refers to an elevated count of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Neutrophils
Answer: C. Platelets
72. A blood test measuring
levels of antithyroid antibodies (such as anti-TPO antibodies) is associated
with the diagnosis of:
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Cushing's syndrome
Answer: C. Hashimoto's
thyroiditis
73. The term
"thrombus" refers to:
A. Excessive bleeding
B. A blood clot that forms and
remains in place within a blood vessel
C. Anaemia
D. Decreased platelet count
Answer: B. A blood clot that
forms and remains in place within a blood vessel
74. A blood test measuring
levels of IgE antibodies is often used to diagnose and monitor:
A. Autoimmune disorders
B. Allergic conditions
C. Thyroid disorders
D. Cardiac disorders
Answer: B. Allergic conditions
75. The term
"pyuria" refers to the presence of:
A. Blood in the urine
B. Protein in the urine
C. Pus in the urine
D. Glucose in the urine
Answer: C. Pus in the urine
76. What is the primary
function of a prothrombin time (PT) test?
A. Assessing liver function
B. Monitoring blood glucose
levels
C. Evaluating blood clotting
factors
D. Measuring levels of
hemoglobin
Answer: C. Evaluating blood
clotting factors
77. A blood test measuring
levels of amylase and lipase is commonly used for the diagnosis of:
A. Liver disease
B. Pancreatitis
C. Kidney disease
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: B. Pancreatitis
78. The term
"hepatomegaly" refers to:
A. Enlarged liver
B. Enlarged kidney
C. Enlarged heart
D. Enlarged spleen
Answer: A. Enlarged liver
79. A serum iron test is often
used to assess:
A. Kidney function
B. Thyroid function
C. Iron levels in the blood
D. Pancreatic function
Answer: C. Iron levels in the
blood
80. Which of the following is
a marker for inflammation and is commonly elevated in conditions such as
rheumatoid arthritis or inflammatory bowel disease?
A. Serum electrolytes
B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH)
D. Lipase
Answer: B. C-reactive protein
(CRP)
81. The term
"thrombophlebitis" refers to:
A. Inflammation of the blood
vessels
B. Formation of blood clots in
the veins with inflammation
C. Clotting of blood in the
arteries
D. Abnormal enlargement of
blood vessels
Answer: B. Formation of blood
clots in the veins with inflammation
82. A blood test measuring
levels of IgA antibodies is associated with the diagnosis of:
A. Celiac disease
B. Lupus erythematosus
C. Type 2 diabetes
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: A. Celiac disease
83. The term
"lymphocytosis" refers to an elevated count of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells,
specifically lymphocytes
C. Platelets
D. Neutrophils
Answer: B. White blood cells,
specifically lymphocytes
84. A blood test measuring
levels of CA 19-9 is commonly used as a tumour marker for:
A. Colorectal cancer
B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Breast cancer
D. Lung cancer
Answer: B. Pancreatic cancer
85. The term
"erythema" refers to:
A. Yellowing of the skin
B. Redness of the skin due to
increased blood flow
C. Bruising of the skin
D. Darkening of the skin
Answer: B. Redness of the skin
due to increased blood flow
86. Which blood test is
commonly used to assess liver function and is elevated in conditions such as
hepatitis or cirrhosis?
A. Amylase
B. Alanine aminotransferase
(ALT)
C. Aspartate aminotransferase
(AST)
D. Lipase
Answer: B. Alanine
aminotransferase (ALT)
87. The term
"proteinuria" refers to the presence of:
A. Blood in the urine
B. Protein in the urine
C. Pus in the urine
D. Glucose in the urine
Answer: B. Protein in the
urine
88. A blood test measuring
levels of homocysteine is often used as a risk marker for:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Cardiovascular disease
C. Type 1 diabetes
D. Chronic kidney disease
Answer: B. Cardiovascular
disease
89. The term
"leukopenia" refers to a deficiency of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Neutrophils
Answer: B. White blood cells
90. A blood test measuring
levels of rheumatoid factor (RF) is commonly used in the diagnosis of:
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Lupus erythematosus
Answer: B. Rheumatoid
arthritis
91. The presence of
"Ketones" in the urine is often associated with:
A. Liver disease
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Thyroid disorders
D. Kidney disease
Answer: B. Diabetes mellitus
92. Which of the following is
a test commonly used to evaluate the function of the adrenal glands?
A. Thyroid function test
B. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH) stimulation test
C. C-reactive protein (CRP)
test
D. Liver function test
Answer: B. Adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH) stimulation test
93. The term "thrombocythemia"
refers to an elevated count of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Lymphocytes
Answer: C. Platelets
94. A blood test measuring
levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is used to assess:
A. Thyroid function
B. Pancreatic function
C. Parathyroid gland function
D. Kidney function
Answer: C. Parathyroid gland
function
95. The term
"haematuria" refers to:
A. Coughing up blood
B. Blood in the stool
C. Blood in the urine
D. Blood in the sputum
Answer: C. Blood in the urine
96. A blood test measuring
levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies is associated with
the diagnosis of:
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE)
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Crohn's disease
Answer: B. Systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE)
97. The term
"polycythaemia" refers to an elevated count of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Lymphocytes
Answer: A. Red blood cells
98. A blood test measuring
levels of creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) is often used to diagnose and monitor:
A. Liver function
B. Kidney function
C. Cardiac injury,
particularly myocardial infarction (heart attack)
D. Respiratory disorders
Answer: C. Cardiac injury,
particularly myocardial infarction (heart attack)
99. The term
"hypercalcemia" refers to elevated levels of:
A. Calcium in the blood
B. Potassium in the blood
C. Sodium in the blood
D. Magnesium in the blood
Answer: A. Calcium in the
blood
100. A blood test measuring
levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin is often used in the assessment of:
A. Liver function
B. Lung function
C. Thyroid function
D. Pancreatic function
Answer: B. Lung function
Ø Medical
Laboratory Instrumentation
1. What is the primary
function of a spectrophotometer in a clinical laboratory?
A. Measurement of blood
pressure
B. Detection of microorganisms
C. Quantification of chemical
substances in a sample
D. Analysis of clotting
factors
Answer: C. Quantification of
chemical substances in a sample
2. Flow cytometry is commonly
used in which area of laboratory testing?
A. Hematology
B. Microbiology
C. Clinical Chemistry
D. Immunology
Answer: A. Hematology
3. Which instrument is used
for the automated counting and sizing of blood cells?
A. Flow cytometer
B. Coagulation analyzer
C. Hemocytometer
D. Microplate reader
Answer: A. Flow cytometer
4. In clinical chemistry, what
is the purpose of a chromatograph?
A. Separation and
identification of components in a mixture
B. Detection of bacterial
growth
C. Quantification of white
blood cells
D. Measurement of clotting
time
Answer: A. Separation and
identification of components in a mixture
5. What is the primary
function of an immunoassay analyzer in the laboratory?
A. Identification of bacteria
B. Quantification of blood
cells
C. Detection of antibodies and
antigens
D. Measurement of electrolytes
Answer: C. Detection of
antibodies and antigens
6. Which of the following
instruments is commonly used for analyzing genetic material in molecular
diagnostics?
A. Spectrophotometer
B. Flow cytometer
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
(PCR) machine
D. Coagulation analyzer
Answer: C. Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) machine
7. Point-of-Care Testing
(POCT) devices are designed for:
A. High-throughput automated
testing
B. On-the-spot testing near
the patient
C. Analysis of genetic
material
D. Microbial identification
Answer: B. On-the-spot testing
near the patient
8. What does LIS stand for in
the context of laboratory instrumentation?
A. Laboratory Information
System
B. Liquid Ionization
Spectrometer
C. Laboratory Instrumentation
Standard
D. Local Instrument Storage
Answer: A. Laboratory
Information System
9. What is the purpose of
quality control in medical laboratory instrumentation?
A. To increase the cost of
testing
B. To ensure accurate and
reliable test results
C. To replace faulty
instruments
D. To reduce laboratory
efficiency
Answer: B. To ensure accurate
and reliable test results
10. Which technology is often
employed for the rapid analysis of urine samples in a clinical laboratory?
- A. Spectrophotometry
- B. Microplate reader
- C. Automated urine analyzer
- D. PCR machine
**Answer: C. Automated urine
analyser**
11. What is the primary
function of a coagulation analyzer in a clinical laboratory?
A. Measurement of blood
glucose levels
B. Detection of microorganisms
in blood
C. Analysis of blood clotting
factors
D. Quantification of white
blood cells
Answer: C. Analysis of blood
clotting factors
12. Which of the following is
an example of a point-of-care testing (POCT) device?
A. Hematology analyzer
B. Centrifuge
C. Glucometer
D. PCR machine
Answer: C. Glucometer
13. The purpose of a
microplate reader in the laboratory is to:
A. Analyze blood gases
B. Measure absorbance or fluorescence
in microplate assays
C. Perform blood typing
D. Separate blood components
Answer: B. Measure absorbance
or fluorescence in microplate assays
14. What is the primary
function of a centrifuge in the clinical laboratory?
A. Separation of blood
components based on density
B. Measurement of blood
pressure
C. Detection of antibodies and
antigens
D. Analysis of genetic
material
Answer: A. Separation of blood
components based on density
15. Which instrument is
commonly used for the analysis of blood gases?
A. Hemocytometer
B. Spectrophotometer
C. Blood gas analyzer
D. Coagulation analyzer
Answer: C. Blood gas analyzer
16. What does ELISA stand for
in the context of laboratory testing?
A. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent
Assay
B. Extended Laboratory
Instrument System Analysis
C. Electron-Linked Instrument
Sensitivity Assessment
D. Enzymatic Laboratory
Integrated System Analyzer
Answer: A. Enzyme-Linked
Immunosorbent Assay
17. The technique of PCR
(Polymerase Chain Reaction) is primarily used for:
A. Separation of blood
components
B. Analysis of blood clotting
factors
C. Amplification of DNA
segments
D. Detection of antibodies
Answer: C. Amplification of
DNA segments
18. In laboratory automation,
what is the aim of integrating automated systems?
A. To increase manual workload
B. To decrease overall
efficiency
C. To streamline and optimize
laboratory workflow
D. To reduce the number of
tests performed
Answer: C. To streamline and
optimize laboratory workflow
19. Which of the following is
an example of a pre-analytical factor that can affect laboratory results?
A. Instrument calibration
B. Sample collection and
handling
C. Quality control procedures
D. LIS implementation
Answer: B. Sample collection
and handling
20. What is the primary
purpose of a LIS (Laboratory Information System) in a clinical laboratory?
- A. Analysis of blood
components
- B. Storage of laboratory
instruments
- C. Management of laboratory
information and data
- D. Maintenance of quality
control procedures
**Answer: C. Management of
laboratory information and data**
Ø Clinical
Microscopy
1. Which of the following
structures is NOT commonly observed in a routine urinalysis microscopic
examination?
A. Red blood cells (RBCs)
B. White blood cells (WBCs)
C. Epithelial cells
D. Platelets
Answer: D. Platelets
2. A "hyaline cast"
observed in urine microscopy is primarily composed of:
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Epithelial cells
D. Protein
Answer: D. Protein
3. Which of the following conditions
is associated with the presence of "dysmorphic red blood cells" in
urine microscopy?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
C. Renal calculi
D. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: A. Glomerulonephritis
4. The presence of
"bacteria" in urine microscopy may indicate:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal calculi
C. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
D. Glomerulonephritis
Answer: C. Urinary tract
infection (UTI)
5. Which of the following
crystals is commonly observed in urine microscopy and is associated with
ethylene glycol poisoning?
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Triple phosphate
C. Uric acid
D. Cystine
Answer: A. Calcium oxalate
6. The presence of "oval
fat bodies" in urine microscopy is suggestive of:
A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
Answer: B. Nephrotic syndrome
7. Which of the following
structures, when observed in urine microscopy, is indicative of renal tubular
injury or inflammation?
A. Casts
B. Red blood cells (RBCs)
C. White blood cells (WBCs)
D. Epithelial cells
Answer: D. Epithelial cells
8. A "waxy cast"
observed in urine microscopy may indicate:
A. Acute kidney injury
B. Chronic kidney disease
C. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
D. Renal calculi
Answer: B. Chronic kidney
disease
9. "Hyaline casts"
are primarily composed of:
A. Protein
B. Red blood cells (RBCs)
C. White blood cells (WBCs)
D. Epithelial cells
Answer: A. Protein
10. The presence of
"triple phosphate crystals" in urine microscopy is indicative of:
- A. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Diabetic nephropathy
- D. Glomerulonephritis
**Answer: A. Urinary tract
infection (UTI)**
11. "Casts" observed
in urine microscopy are formed in the:
- A. Renal tubules
- B. Bladder
- C. Ureters
- D. Urethra
**Answer: A. Renal tubules**
12. Which of the following
conditions is associated with the presence of "bilirubin" in urine
microscopy?
- A. Hematuria
- B. Liver disease
- C. Glomerulonephritis
- D. Diabetes mellitus
**Answer: B. Liver disease**
13. The formation of
"uric acid crystals" in urine is influenced by:
- A. Alkaline pH
- B. Neutral pH
- C. Acidic pH
- D. High glucose levels
**Answer: C. Acidic pH**
14. The presence of
"mucus threads" in urine microscopy may be indicative of:
- A. Normal physiological
conditions
- B. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Renal calculi
**Answer: A. Normal
physiological conditions**
15. "Calcium phosphate
crystals" in urine microscopy are more likely to form in an environment
with:
- A. Alkaline pH
- B. Neutral pH
- C. Acidic pH
- D. High glucose levels
**Answer: A. Alkaline pH**
16. The presence of
"fatty casts" in urine microscopy may suggest:
- A. Nephrotic syndrome
- B. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
- C. Glomerulonephritis
- D. Renal calculi
**Answer: A. Nephrotic
syndrome**
17. "Tyrosine
crystals" in urine microscopy may be observed in cases of:
- A. Liver disease
- B. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Haematuria
**Answer: B. Phenylketonuria
(PKU)**
18. The presence of
"hyaline casts" in urine may be seen in conditions such as:
- A. Diabetes mellitus
- B. Dehydration
- C. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
- D. Glomerulonephritis
**Answer: B. Dehydration**
19. "Squamous epithelial
cells" seen in urine microscopy are typically derived from the:
- A. Renal tubules
- B. Urethra
- C. Bladder
- D. Prostate gland
**Answer: B. Urethra**
20. The presence of
"crystals with envelope-like shapes" in urine microscopy is
characteristic of:
- A. Cystine crystals
- B. Calcium oxalate crystals
- C. Triple phosphate crystals
- D. Uric acid crystals
**Answer: C. Triple phosphate
crystals**
21. "Crenated red blood
cells" in urine microscopy may be caused by:
- A. Dehydration
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
- D. Renal calculi
**Answer: A. Dehydration**
22. The presence of
"amorphous urates" in urine microscopy is associated with:
- A. Acidic urine pH
- B. Alkaline urine pH
- C. Neutral urine pH
- D. High glucose levels
**Answer: A. Acidic urine pH**
23. "Renal tubular
epithelial cells" observed in urine microscopy may indicate:
- A. Normal physiological
conditions
- B. Glomerulonephritis
- C. Tubular injury or
inflammation
- D. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
**Answer: C. Tubular injury or
inflammation**
24. The presence of
"yeast cells" in urine microscopy may suggest:
- A. Fungal infection
- B. Normal flora
- C. Renal calculi
- D. Glomerulonephritis
**Answer: A. Fungal
infection**
25. Which of the following is
a common cause of "hematuria" in urine microscopy?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Liver disease
- C. Kidney stones
- D. Elevated blood pressure
**Answer: C. Kidney stones**
26. "Bilirubinuria"
is associated with:
- A. Liver disease
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Hematuria
- D. Dehydration
**Answer: A. Liver disease**
27. The term
"birefringent crystals" in urine microscopy refers to crystals that
exhibit:
- A. No color under polarized
light
- B. Two different colors
under polarized light
- C. Fluorescence
- D. Phosphorescence
**Answer: B. Two different
colors under polarized light**
28. "Calcium oxalate
crystals" in urine microscopy are commonly associated with:
- A. Acidic urine pH
- B. Alkaline urine pH
- C. Normal urine pH
- D. Elevated blood pressure
**Answer: A. Acidic urine pH**
29. The presence of
"mucus casts" in urine microscopy may be indicative of:
- A. Normal physiological
conditions
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Urinary tract infection
(UTI)
- D. Chronic kidney disease
**Answer: C. Urinary tract
infection (UTI)**
30. "Brown granular
casts" in urine microscopy may be seen in cases of:
- A. Dehydration
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Glomerulonephritis
- D. Acute tubular necrosis
**Answer: D. Acute tubular
necrosis**
Ø Quality
Control and Quality Assurance
1. What is the primary goal of
Quality Control (QC) in a medical laboratory?
A. Minimize costs
B. Maximize workload
C. Ensure accuracy and
reliability of test results
D. Increase turnaround time
Answer: C. Ensure accuracy and
reliability of test results
2. Which of the following is a
component of Quality Assurance (QA)?
A. Calibration of instruments
B. Routine maintenance
C. Proficiency testing
D. Patient sample analysis
Answer: C. Proficiency testing
3. The term "analytical
quality" in the laboratory context refers to:
A. Precision and accuracy of
test results
B. Timeliness of reporting
C. Number of tests performed
per day
D. Physical layout of the
laboratory
Answer: A. Precision and
accuracy of test results
4. What is the purpose of an
External Quality Assessment (EQA) program in a medical laboratory?
A. Monitor employee
performance
B. Assess the laboratory's
physical infrastructure
C. Evaluate the laboratory's
compliance with regulations
D. Assess the laboratory's
analytical performance compared to other laboratories
Answer: D. Assess the
laboratory's analytical performance compared to other laboratories
5. The "mean" in
statistical terms represents:
A. The middle value of a set
of data
B. The most frequently
occurring value
C. The average of a set of
data
D. The range of values
Answer: C. The average of a
set of data
6. In the context of Quality
Control, a "control chart" is used to monitor:
A. Employee attendance
B. Instrument calibration
C. Daily weather conditions
D. Analytical performance over
time
Answer: D. Analytical
performance over time
7. The process of comparing
laboratory test results with a reference method or a reference laboratory is
known as:
A. Calibration
B. Proficiency testing
C. Quality Control
D. External Quality Assessment
Answer: B. Proficiency testing
8. "Trends" in
Quality Control data may indicate:
A. Stability of the analytical
process
B. Consistent precision
C. Systematic errors or shifts
in performance
D. Random errors
Answer: C. Systematic errors
or shifts in performance
9. "Random errors"
in laboratory testing are best identified by:
A. Control charts
B. Proficiency testing
C. Calibration curves
D. Internal audits
Answer: A. Control charts
10. The primary purpose of
Internal Quality Control (IQC) is to:
- A. Compare laboratory
performance with other laboratories
- B. Monitor the stability and
precision of analytical methods
- C. Assess employee
competency
- D. Validate new testing
methods
**Answer: B. Monitor the stability
and precision of analytical methods**
11. What is the purpose of a
"blank" in analytical chemistry and Quality Control?
- A. To test the instrument's
upper limit
- B. To assess reagent purity
and contamination
- C. To calibrate the
instrument
- D. To measure the lower
limit of detection
**Answer: B. To assess reagent
purity and contamination**
12. Which statistical measure
is used to describe the spread or dispersion of a set of data points?
- A. Mean
- B. Median
- C. Range
- D. Standard deviation
**Answer: D. Standard
deviation**
13. In Quality Control, the
term "precision" refers to:
- A. The accuracy of test
results
- B. The reproducibility and
consistency of test results
- C. The absence of random
errors
- D. The agreement between
test results and a reference method
**Answer: B. The
reproducibility and consistency of test results**
14. "Six Sigma" in
Quality Management refers to:
- A. A statistical measure of
process capability
- B. Six different quality
control methods
- C. Six phases of quality
improvement
- D. A type of laboratory
accreditation
**Answer: A. A statistical
measure of process capability**
15. The term "bias"
in the context of laboratory testing refers to:
- A. The precision of test
results
- B. The accuracy of test
results
- C. The variability of test
results
- D. The stability of the
analytical process
**Answer: B. The accuracy of
test results**
16. A laboratory that
participates in an External Quality Assessment (EQA) program receives samples
from an external organization to assess:
- A. Employee performance
- B. Analytical performance
compared to other laboratories
- C. Compliance with safety
regulations
- D. Patient satisfaction
**Answer: B. Analytical
performance compared to other laboratories**
17. The process of
"calibration" in laboratory instruments involves:
- A. Comparing results with a
reference laboratory
- B. Adjusting the instrument
to achieve accurate and reliable results
- C. Performing proficiency
testing
- D. Monitoring trends in
quality control data
**Answer: B. Adjusting the
instrument to achieve accurate and reliable results**
18. "Verification"
of a laboratory test method involves:
- A. Assessing employee
competency
- B. Assessing instrument
calibration
- C. Confirming the accuracy
and reliability of a test method
- D. Participating in
proficiency testing
**Answer: C. Confirming the
accuracy and reliability of a test method**
19. The "Youden
Index" in laboratory quality control is used to optimize:
- A. Sensitivity
- B. Specificity
- C. Precision
- D. Accuracy
**Answer: C. Precision**
20. In a laboratory, the
"reference range" or "normal range" is established based
on:
- A. Historical data from the
laboratory
- B. Expert opinion
- C. Population-based studies
- D. Regulatory requirements
**Answer: C. Population-based
studies**
21. What is the primary
purpose of "reagent blanks" in laboratory testing?
- A. To check the accuracy of
instruments
- B. To monitor the stability
of reagents
- C. To assess reagent
contamination
- D. To calibrate the
instrument
**Answer: C. To assess reagent
contamination**
22. In laboratory quality
control, "accuracy" is defined as:
- A. The ability to obtain the
same result repeatedly
- B. The closeness of a
measured value to the true value
- C. The absence of systematic
errors
- D. The precision of test
results
**Answer: B. The closeness of
a measured value to the true value**
23. The term "total
allowable error" (TEa) in laboratory quality control refers to:
- A. The maximum acceptable
variation from the reference value
- B. The total number of
errors allowed in a given period
- C. The total error due to
random errors
- D. The allowable errors in
proficiency testing
**Answer: A. The maximum
acceptable variation from the reference value**
24. "Sigma metrics"
in laboratory quality control are used to assess:
- A. Precision
- B. Bias
- C. Analytical performance
- D. Proficiency testing
results
**Answer: C. Analytical
performance**
25. In a laboratory,
"turnaround time" refers to:
- A. The time taken to perform
a single test
- B. The time taken to
calibrate instruments
- C. The time taken to report
results after sample receipt
- D. The time taken to conduct
proficiency testing
**Answer: C. The time taken to
report results after sample receipt**
26. "Control limits"
in quality control charts are established based on:
- A. Regulatory requirements
- B. Laboratory budget
constraints
- C. Historical laboratory
data
- D. Expert opinion
**Answer: C. Historical
laboratory data**
27. Which of the following is
a pre-analytical factor that can impact laboratory test results?
- A. Calibration errors
- B. Instrument precision
- C. Sample collection and
handling
- D. Proficiency testing
**Answer: C. Sample collection
and handling**
28. "Levey-Jennings
charts" are commonly used in quality control to monitor:
- A. Instrument calibration
- B. Daily laboratory workload
- C. Proficiency testing
results
- D. Analytical performance
over time
**Answer: D. Analytical
performance over time**
29. "Risk
management" in laboratory quality assurance involves:
- A. Reducing the number of
tests performed
- B. Identifying and
mitigating potential sources of error
- C. Increasing the laboratory
budget
- D. Enhancing employee
productivity
**Answer: B. Identifying and
mitigating potential sources of error**
30. The process of
"verification" of a laboratory test method includes:
- A. Routine maintenance of
instruments
- B. Confirming the accuracy
and reliability of the test method
- C. Employee training
programs
- D. Participation in
proficiency testing
**Answer: B. Confirming the
accuracy and reliability of the test method
Ø Clinical
Training
1. What is the primary goal of
clinical training for healthcare professionals?
A. Enhancing theoretical
knowledge only
B. Developing practical skills
and competencies
C. Memorizing medical
textbooks
D. Completing coursework
assignments
Answer: B. Developing
practical skills and competencies
2. In clinical training, what
does the term "bedside manner" refer to?
A. The cleanliness of hospital
beds
B. The ability to communicate
effectively with patients
C. The arrangement of
furniture in patient rooms
D. The time spent at the
patient's bedside
Answer: B. The ability to
communicate effectively with patients
3. Which of the following is a
crucial aspect of clinical training for medical professionals?
A. Learning only from
textbooks
B. Developing empathy and
compassion
C. Focusing solely on
individual tasks
D. Avoiding patient
interaction
Answer: B. Developing empathy
and compassion
4. What role does clinical
simulation play in healthcare training?
A. Providing theoretical
knowledge only
B. Replacing hands-on clinical
experience
C. Simulating real-world
scenarios for practice
D. Allowing trainees to skip
practical training
Answer: C. Simulating
real-world scenarios for practice
5. In clinical training, what
is the purpose of case-based learning?
A. Memorizing medical facts
B. Applying theoretical
knowledge to real cases
C. Avoiding patient
interaction
D. Ignoring real-life
scenarios
Answer: B. Applying
theoretical knowledge to real cases
6. What is the significance of
interprofessional education in clinical training?
A. Isolating healthcare
professionals from each other
B. Enhancing teamwork and
collaboration
C. Reducing communication
skills
D. Promoting individualistic
approaches
Answer: B. Enhancing teamwork
and collaboration
7. How does clinical training
contribute to continuous professional development in healthcare?
A. By limiting exposure to
practical experiences
B. By promoting a static
approach to learning
C. By encouraging lifelong
learning and adaptation
D. By relying solely on
initial education
Answer: C. By encouraging
lifelong learning and adaptation
8. What is the role of
preceptorship in clinical training?
A. Excluding experienced
professionals from training programs
B. Providing guidance and
mentorship to learners
C. Ignoring the importance of
practical skills
D. Focusing solely on
theoretical knowledge
Answer: B. Providing guidance
and mentorship to learners
9. In clinical training, what
does the term "continuing education" refer to?
A. Completing one-time
training programs
B. Pursuing education
throughout one's career
C. Relying solely on initial
education
D. Ignoring the need for
ongoing learning
Answer: B. Pursuing education
throughout one's career
10. What is the importance of
reflective practice in clinical training?
- A. Avoiding self-assessment
and improvement
- B. Focusing solely on
technical skills
- C. Promoting self-awareness
and critical thinking
- D. Disregarding the impact
of training on patient care
**Answer: C. Promoting
self-awareness and critical thinking**
11. What does the term
"hands-on training" imply in the context of clinical education?
- A. Learning solely from
textbooks
- B. Emphasizing theoretical
knowledge
- C. Actively engaging in
practical experiences
- D. Avoiding practical skills
development
**Answer: C. Actively engaging
in practical experiences**
12. In clinical training, what
is the significance of cultural competence?
- A. Ignoring diversity in
patient populations
- B. Understanding and
respecting diverse patient cultures
- C. Exclusively focusing on
medical knowledge
- D. Neglecting communication
skills
**Answer: B. Understanding and
respecting diverse patient cultures**
13. What role does feedback
play in the clinical training process?
- A. Discouraging trainees
from improvement
- B. Providing guidance and
assessment for improvement
- C. Being irrelevant to the
learning process
- D. Undermining the
importance of practical skills
**Answer: B. Providing
guidance and assessment for improvement**
14. How does clinical training
contribute to the development of critical thinking skills in healthcare
professionals?
- A. By discouraging
independent thought
- B. By promoting rote
memorization
- C. By encouraging
problem-solving and analysis
- D. By relying solely on
theoretical knowledge
**Answer: C. By encouraging
problem-solving and analysis**
15. The term
"preceptor" refers to:
- A. A trainee in a clinical
program
- B. A seasoned professional
who provides guidance to learners
- C. A theoretical concept in
medical education
- D. A type of clinical
simulation tool
**Answer: B. A seasoned
professional who provides guidance to learners**
16. What is the primary focus
of clinical training evaluations?
- A. Assessing only
theoretical knowledge
- B. Identifying trainees'
weaknesses for punitive measures
- C. Providing constructive
feedback for improvement
- D. Avoiding performance
assessments
**Answer: C. Providing
constructive feedback for improvement**
17. What is the role of
mentorship in clinical training?
- A. Isolating learners from
experienced professionals
- B. Promoting a competitive
environment
- C. Providing guidance,
support, and career advice
- D. Ignoring the importance
of interpersonal skills
**Answer: C. Providing
guidance, support, and career advice**
18. In clinical education,
what does the term "patient-centred care" emphasize?
- A. Focusing solely on medical
procedures
- B. Prioritizing
administrative tasks
- C. Placing the patient's
needs and preferences at the forefront
- D. Avoiding communication
with patients
**Answer: C. Placing the
patient's needs and preferences at the forefront**
19. What is the purpose of
"clinical rounds" in medical education?
- A. Isolating healthcare
professionals from each other
- B. Providing an opportunity
for interdisciplinary collaboration
- C. Ignoring patient
interactions
- D. Relying solely on
individualized learning
**Answer: B. Providing an
opportunity for interdisciplinary collaboration**
20. How does clinical training
contribute to the development of professionalism in healthcare practitioners?
- A. By emphasizing technical
skills only
- B. By promoting ethical behaviour,
communication, and teamwork
- C. By avoiding interactions
with patients
- D. By relying solely on
theoretical knowledge
**Answer: B. By promoting
ethical behaviour, communication, and teamwork*
Ø
SEROLOGY 60 MCQ
1. What is
the primary focus of serology in a medical laboratory?
a. Study of
microorganisms
b. Study of blood serum
c. Study of tissues
d. Study of urine
Answer: b.
Study of blood serum
2. Which of
the following is a common serological test used for the detection of antibodies
in the blood?
a.
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
b. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
c. Western Blot
d. Flow cytometry
Answer: b.
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)
3. What is
the main purpose of the VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test?
a.
Detection of HIV
b. Detection of syphilis
c. Detection of hepatitis B
d. Detection of malaria
Answer: b.
Detection of syphilis
4. Which
immunoglobulin class is primarily involved in serological reactions?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
Answer: c.
IgG
5. In blood
typing, the presence of which antigens determines the ABO blood group?
a. Rh
antigen
b. A and B antigens
c. H antigen
d. K antigen
Answer: b.
A and B antigens
6. The
rapid plasma regain (RPR) test is commonly used for the diagnosis of which
disease?
a. HIV
b. Syphilis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Hepatitis C
Answer: b.
Syphilis
7. Which of
the following is a confirmatory test for HIV infection?
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. Western Blot
d. Rapid Test
Answer: c.
Western Blot
8. What is
the purpose of the Coombs test in serology?
a.
Detection of bacterial infections
b. Detection of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
c. Identification of viral infections
d. Measurement of blood glucose levels
Answer: b.
Detection of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
9. Which of
the following is a common marker used in serological tests to indicate recent
streptococcal infection?
a. ASO
(Anti-Streptolysin O)
b. CRP (C-Reactive Protein)
c. RF (Rheumatoid Factor)
d. ANA (Antinuclear Antibody)
Answer: a.
ASO (Anti-Streptolysin O)
10. The
presence of which antibody is typically associated with allergic reactions in
serological testing?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
Answer: b.
IgE
11. Which
serological test is commonly used for the diagnosis of infectious
mononucleosis?
a. Widal
test
b. Monospot test
c. Mantoux test
d. Coombs test
Answer: b.
Monospot test
12. What is
the primary purpose of the Rheumatoid Factor (RF) test in serology?
a.
Detection of rheumatic fever
b. Diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis
c. Identification of viral infections
d. Monitoring glucose levels in diabetes
Answer: b.
Diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis
13. Which
of the following serological tests is used for the diagnosis of autoimmune
diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
a. ANA
(Antinuclear Antibody) test
b. VDRL test
c. TPHA (Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination Assay)
d. CRP (C-Reactive Protein) test
Answer: a.
ANA (Antinuclear Antibody) test
14. In
blood banking, which test is performed to determine compatibility between the
donor's blood and the recipient's blood before a transfusion?
a. ELISA
b. Crossmatch
c. Western Blot
d. Coombs test
Answer: b.
Crossmatch
15. The
Quellung reaction is a serological test used for the identification of which
type of microorganisms?
a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Fungi
d. Parasites
Answer: a.
Bacteria
16. What is
the primary target of the RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) test for syphilis?
a.
Treponema pallidum antibodies
b. Treponema pallidum antigens
c. HIV antibodies
d. Hepatitis B antigens
Answer: b.
Treponema pallidum antigens
17. Which
serological test is commonly used for the diagnosis of hepatitis B infection?
a. Western
Blot
b. ELISA
c. HBsAg (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen) test
d. Monospot test
Answer: c.
HBsAg (Hepatitis B Surface Antigen) test
18. What is
the significance of the VDRL test titer in the diagnosis of syphilis?
a. It
indicates the severity of the infection
b. It determines the stage of syphilis
c. It assesses the response to treatment
d. It identifies the causative microorganism
Answer: c.
It assesses the response to treatment
19. Which
of the following is a confirmatory test for hepatitis C infection?
a. HCV RNA
PCR
b. HBsAg test
c. HCV ELISA
d. Monospot test
Answer: a.
HCV RNA PCR
20. In
blood grouping, which blood type is considered the universal donor?
a. A
positive
b. B negative
c. AB positive
d. O negative
Answer: d.
O negative
21. What
does a positive Rheumatoid Factor (RF) test indicate?
a. Recent
streptococcal infection
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
d. Infectious mononucleosis
Answer: b.
Rheumatoid arthritis
22. Which
serological marker is associated with the autoimmune disorder known as celiac
disease?
a. Anti-CCP
(Anti-Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide)
b. ANA (Antinuclear Antibody)
c. Anti-TTG (Anti-Tissue Transglutaminase)
d. ASO (Anti-Streptolysin O)
Answer: c.
Anti-TTG (Anti-Tissue Transglutaminase)
23. What is
the primary purpose of the C-reactive protein (CRP) test in serology?
a.
Diagnosis of autoimmune diseases
b. Monitoring inflammation and infection
c. Detection of viral infections
d. Blood typing
Answer: b.
Monitoring inflammation and infection
24. Which
serological test is commonly used for the detection of antibodies in the
diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disorders such as Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
a. TSH
(Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) test
b. Anti-TPO (Antithyroid Peroxidase) test
c. Free T4 test
d. Thyroglobulin test
Answer: b.
Anti-TPO (Antithyroid Peroxidase) test
25. The
Mantoux test is a type of serological test used for the diagnosis of:
a.
Tuberculosis
b. HIV/AIDS
c. Syphilis
d. Malaria
Answer: a.
Tuberculosis
26. Which
serological test is commonly used for the detection of antibodies in the
diagnosis of autoimmune disorders like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
a. ASO
(Anti-Streptolysin O) test
b. VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test
c. ANA (Antinuclear Antibody) test
d. Monospot test
Answer: c.
ANA (Antinuclear Antibody) test
27. What is
the primary purpose of the Rapid Test for HIV?
a. Initial
screening for HIV antibodies
b. Confirmation of HIV infection
c. Monitoring HIV viral load
d. Detection of hepatitis B antigens
Answer: a.
Initial screening for HIV antibodies
28. Which
of the following is a serological test used for the diagnosis of autoimmune
hemolytic anemia?
a. Coombs
test
b. Widal test
c. Monospot test
d. TPHA (Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination Assay)
Answer: a.
Coombs test
29. Which
serological test is commonly used for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever and
glomerulonephritis?
a. ASO
(Anti-Streptolysin O) test
b. CRP (C-Reactive Protein) test
c. RF (Rheumatoid Factor) test
d. ANA (Antinuclear Antibody) test
Answer: a.
ASO (Anti-Streptolysin O) test
30. The
QuantiFERON-TB Gold test is used for the diagnosis of:
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Hepatitis C
Answer: b.
Tuberculosis
31. Which
serological test is commonly used for the diagnosis of autoimmune disorders
such as multiple sclerosis?
a. ANA
(Antinuclear Antibody) test
b. ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) test
c. Anti-MOG (Myelin Oligodendrocyte Glycoprotein) test
d. Widal test
Answer: c.
Anti-MOG (Myelin Oligodendrocyte Glycoprotein) test
32. The HCG
(Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) test is commonly used for:
a.
Detection of thyroid disorders
b. Pregnancy testing
c. Monitoring diabetes
d. Detection of autoimmune diseases
Answer: b.
Pregnancy testing
33. Which
of the following is a serological test used for the diagnosis of autoimmune
blistering diseases such as pemphigus vulgaris?
a. TPHA
(Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination Assay)
b. Bullous Pemphigoid Antibody test
c. VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) test
d. Monospot test
Answer: b.
Bullous Pemphigoid Antibody test
34. The
Widal test is commonly employed for the diagnosis of:
a. Tuberculosis
b. Typhoid fever
c. Hepatitis B
d. Dengue fever
Answer: b.
Typhoid fever
35. Which
serological test is commonly used for the diagnosis of autoimmune diseases like
systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)?
a. Anti-Sm
(Anti-Smith) test
b. Anti-dsDNA (Anti-double-stranded DNA) test
c. Anti-CCP (Anti-Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide) test
d. Anti-TPO (Antithyroid Peroxidase) test
Answer: a.
Anti-Sm (Anti-Smith) test
36. The
Rapid Antigen Test (RAT) is frequently used for the rapid detection of:
a. HIV
b. Influenza
c. Hepatitis C
d. Syphilis
Answer: b.
Influenza
37. Which
serological marker is associated with autoimmune liver diseases, such as
autoimmune hepatitis?
a. Anti-TPO
(Antithyroid Peroxidase)
b. Anti-MOG (Myelin Oligodendrocyte Glycoprotein)
c. Anti-LKM (Liver Kidney Microsomal)
d. ANA (Antinuclear Antibody)
Answer: c.
Anti-LKM (Liver Kidney Microsomal)
38. The C3
and C4 complement levels are often measured in serological tests to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Renal function
c. Immune system activity
d. Cardiovascular health
Answer: c.
Immune system activity
39. The
HbA1c test is not a typical serological test but is commonly used to monitor:
a. Liver
function
b. Blood glucose levels over time
c. Autoimmune diseases
d. Hormone levels in pregnancy
Answer: b.
Blood glucose levels over time
40. The
TPHA (Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination Assay) test is commonly used as a
confirmatory test for:
a. HIV
b. Syphilis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Hepatitis B
Answer: b.
Syphilis
41. The
Anti-CCP (Anti-Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide) test is primarily associated with
the diagnosis of:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
42. The
RAST (Radio-allergo-sorbent) test is used for the diagnosis of:
a.
Autoimmune diseases
b. Allergies
c. Viral infections
d. Thyroid disorders
Answer: b.
Allergies
43. What is
the primary purpose of the D-dimer test in serology?
a.
Detection of liver function
b. Monitoring blood glucose levels
c. Evaluation of coagulation and fibrinolysis
d. Identification of autoimmune diseases
Answer: c.
Evaluation of coagulation and fibrinolysis
44. The
Anti-dsDNA (Anti-double-stranded DNA) test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a. Lupus
erythematosus
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Answer: a.
Lupus erythematosus
45. The
Tzanck smear is a diagnostic test used for the detection of:
a. Fungal
infections
b. Bacterial infections
c. Viral infections
d. Parasitic infections
Answer: c.
Viral infections
46. Which
serological test is commonly used to diagnose and monitor autoimmune blistering
diseases such as pemphigus vulgaris?
a. TPHA
(Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination Assay)
b. Coombs test
c. ANA (Antinuclear Antibody) test
d. Bullous Pemphigoid Antibody test
Answer: d.
Bullous Pemphigoid Antibody test
47. The AFP
(Alpha-fetoprotein) test is often used for the screening and monitoring of:
a. Liver
cancer
b. Lung cancer
c. Breast cancer
d. Colorectal cancer
Answer: a.
Liver cancer
48. The TSH
(Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) test is commonly used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Kidney function
c. Thyroid function
d. Pancreatic function
Answer: c.
Thyroid function
49. Which
serological test is commonly used for the detection of antibodies in the
diagnosis of autoimmune disorders such as myasthenia gravis?
a. Anti-TPO
(Antithyroid Peroxidase) test
b. Anti-AChR (Anti-Acetylcholine Receptor) test
c. CRP (C-Reactive Protein) test
d. Monospot test
Answer: b.
Anti-AChR (Anti-Acetylcholine Receptor) test
50. The
Schilling test is used to assess the absorption of:
a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12
c. Calcium
d. Vitamin D
Answer: b.
Vitamin B12
51. The
MPO-ANCA (Myeloperoxidase-Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody) test is
associated with the diagnosis of:
a. Multiple
sclerosis
b. Inflammatory bowel disease
c. Wegener's granulomatosis
d. Psoriasis
Answer: c.
Wegener's granulomatosis
52. The
CA-125 (Cancer Antigen 125) test is commonly used in the diagnosis and
monitoring of:
a. Ovarian
cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Breast cancer
Answer: a.
Ovarian cancer
53. The
HLA-B27 test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: c.
Ankylosing spondylitis
54. The CA
19-9 (Cancer Antigen 19-9) test is commonly used in the diagnosis and
monitoring of:
a.
Colorectal cancer
b. Pancreatic cancer
c. Breast cancer
d. Lung cancer
Answer: b.
Pancreatic cancer
55. The
Anti-Jo-1 antibody is associated with:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
c. Polymyositis
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
Answer: c.
Polymyositis
56. The
T-SPOT.TB test is used for the diagnosis of:
a.
Tuberculosis
b. Hepatitis B
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Malaria
Answer: a.
Tuberculosis
57. The MMR
(Measles, Mumps, Rubella) titer is measured in serology to assess:
a. Immunity
to common childhood infections
b. Thyroid function
c. Liver function
d. Autoimmune diseases
Answer: a.
Immunity to common childhood infections
58. The
presence of anti-Smooth Muscle Antibody (ASMA) is associated with:
a.
Hepatitis B infection
b. Autoimmune hepatitis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Lupus erythematosus
Answer: b.
Autoimmune hepatitis
59. The ESR
(Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) is a non-specific marker of:
a.
Inflammation
b. Viral infections
c. Autoimmune diseases
d. Diabetes
Answer: a.
Inflammation
60. The CEA
(Carcinoembryonic Antigen) test is commonly used for monitoring:
a. Liver
function
b. Pancreatic function
c. Tumour marker for colorectal cancer
d. Thyroid function
Answer: c.
Tumour marker for colorectal cancer
Ø
PATHOLOGY 100 MCQS
1. What is
the primary focus of Clinical Pathology?
a. Study of
blood
b. Study of tissues and cells
c. Study of bacteria and viruses
d. Study of hormones
Answer: b.
Study of tissues and cells
2. The term
"hematology" refers to the study of:
a. Hormones
b. Blood
c. Tissues
d. Urine
Answer: b.
Blood
3. Which
laboratory test is commonly used to assess kidney function?
a. Complete
Blood Count (CBC)
b. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
c. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
d. Serum Amylase
Answer: c.
Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
4. The
presence of which cell type in the blood is indicative of an allergic or
parasitic condition?
a.
Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Monocytes
Answer: b.
Basophils
5. Which of
the following is not a component of a complete blood count (CBC)?
a.
Hemoglobin
b. Platelet count
c. Serum creatinine
d. Red blood cell count
Answer: c.
Serum creatinine
6. The
laboratory test that measures the average blood glucose levels over the past
2-3 months is called:
a. Fasting
Blood Sugar (FBS)
b. Random Blood Sugar (RBS)
c. Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
d. Hemoglobin A1c
Answer: d.
Hemoglobin A1c
7. A
differential white blood cell count provides information about:
a. Total
number of white blood cells
b. Percentage of different types of white blood cells
c. Red blood cell count
d. Platelet count
Answer: b.
Percentage of different types of white blood cells
8. The
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific indicator of:
a.
Inflammation
b. Blood clotting
c. Oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
d. Hemoglobin concentration
Answer: a.
Inflammation
9. Which
laboratory test is commonly used to assess liver function and detect liver
disorders?
a. Serum
Amylase
b. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
c. Troponin
d. Creatine Kinase (CK)
Answer: b.
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
10. The
presence of which antibody is typically tested in autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid
arthritis?
a. ANA
(Antinuclear Antibody)
b. Anti-TPO (Antithyroid Peroxidase)
c. ASO (Anti-Streptolysin O)
d. RF (Rheumatoid Factor)
Answer: d.
RF (Rheumatoid Factor)
11. Which
of the following is a marker used in the diagnosis and monitoring of cardiac
muscle damage?
a. Troponin
b. Amylase
c. Creatinine
d. Lipase
Answer: a.
Troponin
12. The
measurement of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is associated with
the assessment of:
a. Blood
glucose levels
b. Coagulation pathways
c. Liver function
d. Red blood cell morphology
Answer: b.
Coagulation pathways
13. Which
of the following is a test used to evaluate the function of the thyroid gland?
a. Serum
Creatinine
b. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
c. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
d. Lipid Profile
Answer: b.
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
14. The
prothrombin time (PT) is a measure of:
a. Red
blood cell count
b. Blood clotting time
c. Oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
d. White blood cell differential count
Answer: b.
Blood clotting time
15. Which
enzyme is commonly elevated in the blood during a myocardial infarction (heart
attack)?
a. Alanine
Aminotransferase (ALT)
b. Creatine Kinase (CK)
c. Amylase
d. Lipase
Answer: b.
Creatine Kinase (CK)
16. The CA
15-3 and CA 27-29 tumor markers are associated with the diagnosis and
monitoring of:
a. Prostate
cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Colorectal cancer
d. Breast cancer
Answer: d.
Breast cancer
17. The
C-reactive protein (CRP) test is used as a marker of:
a. Liver
function
b. Kidney function
c. Inflammation
d. Thyroid function
Answer: c.
Inflammation
18. The CSF
analysis is a diagnostic test that involves the examination of:
a. Blood
cells in cerebrospinal fluid
b. Liver enzymes in cerebrospinal fluid
c. Glucose levels in cerebrospinal fluid
d. Red blood cells in urine
Answer: a.
Blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid
19. The
anti-TPO (Antithyroid Peroxidase) test is used in the diagnosis of:
a. Diabetes
mellitus
b. Thyroid disorders
c. Autoimmune hepatitis
d. Lupus erythematosus
Answer: b.
Thyroid disorders
20. The von
Willebrand factor (vWF) assay is used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Platelet function
c. Kidney function
d. Coagulation pathways
Answer: b.
Platelet function
21. Which
of the following blood cell types is primarily responsible for immune responses
and antibody production?
a.
Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils
d. Basophils
Answer: b.
Lymphocytes
22. The
APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) test is commonly used to monitor
the effectiveness of:
a.
Anticoagulant therapy
b. Antibiotic treatment
c. Antihypertensive medications
d. Antidiabetic medications
Answer: a.
Anticoagulant therapy
23. The
presence of microorganisms in the blood is detected through which laboratory
test?
a. Blood
Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
b. Blood Culture
c. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
d. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
Answer: b.
Blood Culture
24. Which
of the following tests is commonly used to assess pancreatic function?
a. Lipase
b. Creatinine
c. Amylase
d. Troponin
Answer: a.
Lipase
25. The CA
125 tumor marker is associated with the diagnosis and monitoring of:
a.
Colorectal cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Prostate cancer
d. Lung cancer
Answer: b.
Ovarian cancer
26. The
MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) is a measure of:
a.
Hemoglobin levels in the blood
b. Red blood cell count
c. Oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
d. Iron levels in the blood
Answer: c.
Oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
27. The
D-dimer test is often used in the diagnosis of:
a. Liver
disorders
b. Thrombotic disorders
c. Pancreatic disorders
d. Renal disorders
Answer: b.
Thrombotic disorders
28. Which
of the following is a marker used in the diagnosis and monitoring of prostate
cancer?
a. CA 19-9
b. PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)
c. AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein)
d. CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen)
Answer: b.
PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen)
29. The
Coombs test is used to diagnose:
a. Thyroid
disorders
b. Anemia
c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d. Kidney disorders
Answer: c.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
30. The
Tzanck smear is utilized for the diagnosis of:
a. Skin
infections
b. Viral infections
c. Urinary tract infections
d. Respiratory infections
Answer: b.
Viral infections
31. The MCH
(Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin) is a measure of:
a. Red
blood cell count
b. Hemoglobin levels in the blood
c. Oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
d. Platelet count
Answer: b.
Hemoglobin levels in the blood
32. The
anti-dsDNA (Anti-double-stranded DNA) test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a. Lupus
erythematosus
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Answer: a.
Lupus erythematosus
33. The
Wright stain is commonly used for the microscopic examination of:
a. Blood
cells
b. Urine crystals
c. Tissue sections
d. Bacteria
Answer: a.
Blood cells
34. The LDH
(Lactate Dehydrogenase) test is often used in the diagnosis of:
a. Liver
disorders
b. Kidney disorders
c. Cardiac disorders
d. Hematologic disorders
Answer: c.
Cardiac disorders
35. The T3
and T4 tests are used to evaluate the function of which organ?
a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Thyroid
d. Pancreas
Answer: c.
Thyroid
36. The
HbA1c test is primarily used to monitor:
a. Liver
function
b. Blood glucose levels over time
c. Thyroid function
d. Kidney function
Answer: b.
Blood glucose levels over time
37. The
Schilling test is utilized for the diagnosis of:
a. Anemia
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency
c. Liver disorders
d. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: b.
Vitamin B12 deficiency
38. The
VLDL (Very Low-Density Lipoprotein) test measures levels of:
a.
Triglycerides
b. Cholesterol
c. High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
d. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
Answer: a.
Triglycerides
39. The HCV
RNA PCR test is used for the diagnosis of:
a.
Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis C
c. HIV
d. Tuberculosis
Answer: b.
Hepatitis C
40. The WBC
(White Blood Cell) count is a measure of:
a. Total
number of white blood cells in a sample
b. Oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells
c. Platelet count
d. Hemoglobin concentration
Answer: a.
Total number of white blood cells in a sample
41. The
Haptoglobin test is commonly used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Renal function
c. Pancreatic function
d. Hemolytic disorders
Answer: d.
Hemolytic disorders
42. The
Ferritin test is used to evaluate:
a. Iron
levels in the blood
b. Blood clotting time
c. Thyroid function
d. Kidney function
Answer: a.
Iron levels in the blood
43. The TdT
(Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase) test is associated with the diagnosis
of:
a. Leukemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Lymphoma
d. Thrombocytopenia
Answer: a.
Leukemia
44. The
presence of atypical lymphocytes is often associated with which viral
infection?
a.
Influenza
b. Hepatitis B
c. HIV
d. Herpes simplex
Answer: c.
HIV
45. The PTT
(Partial Thromboplastin Time) test is commonly used to evaluate:
a. Platelet
function
b. Coagulation pathways
c. Red blood cell count
d. White blood cell differential count
Answer: b.
Coagulation pathways
46. The PSA
(Prostate-Specific Antigen) test is used for the screening and monitoring of:
a. Ovarian
cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Colorectal cancer
d. Lung cancer
Answer: b.
Prostate cancer
47. The MCV
(Mean Corpuscular Volume) is a measure of:
a. Red
blood cell count
b. Hemoglobin levels in the blood
c. Oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
d. Average volume of red blood cells
Answer: d.
Average volume of red blood cells
48. The
presence of anti-HCV antibodies is indicative of infection with which virus?
a.
Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
Answer: c.
Hepatitis C
49. The
sweat chloride test is used in the diagnosis of:
a. Cystic
fibrosis
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Chronic kidney disease
d. Hemochromatosis
Answer: a.
Cystic fibrosis
50. The CA
19-9 (Cancer Antigen 19-9) test is commonly used in the diagnosis and
monitoring of:
a. Colorectal
cancer
b. Pancreatic cancer
c. Breast cancer
d. Lung cancer
Answer: b.
Pancreatic cancer
51. The
JAK2 mutation test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a.
Leukaemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Polycythaemia vera
d. Lymphoma
Answer: c.
Polycythaemia vera
52. The
Reticulocyte Count is a measure of:
a. Immature
red blood cells in the blood
b. Platelet count
c. Mature red blood cells in the blood
d. White blood cell count
Answer: a.
Immature red blood cells in the blood
53. The
anti-CCP (Anti-Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide) test is associated with the
diagnosis of:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Gout
Answer: a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
54. The
Methylmalonic Acid (MMA) test is used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Renal function
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency
d. Thyroid function
Answer: c.
Vitamin B12 deficiency
55. The TSH
(Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) test is commonly used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Kidney function
c. Thyroid function
d. Pancreatic function
Answer: c.
Thyroid function
56. The
Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT) test is used to detect an adverse
reaction to:
a.
Antibiotics
b. Anticoagulant medication
c. Pain relievers
d. Antihypertensive medications
Answer: b.
Anticoagulant medication
57. The C3
and C4 complement levels are often measured in the diagnosis of:
a.
Hepatitis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: c.
Lupus erythematosus
58. The CA
72-4 tumor marker is associated with the diagnosis and monitoring of:
a.
Colorectal cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Prostate cancer
Answer: b.
Ovarian cancer
59. The
D-dimer test is commonly used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Kidney function
c. Coagulation and fibrinolysis
d. Thyroid function
Answer: c.
Coagulation and fibrinolysis
60. The
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear is a screening test for:
a. Breast
cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Prostate cancer
Answer: c.
Cervical cancer
61. The
Tumor Marker CA 15-3 is associated with:
a. Ovarian
cancer
b. Breast cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Colorectal cancer
Answer: b.
Breast cancer
62. The
Mantoux test is used for the diagnosis of:
a.
Tuberculosis
b. Malaria
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Hepatitis B
Answer: a.
Tuberculosis
63. The BUN
(Blood Urea Nitrogen) test is commonly used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Renal function
c. Thyroid function
d. Pancreatic function
Answer: b.
Renal function
64. The
Anti-Jo-1 antibody is associated with:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
c. Polymyositis
d. Ankylosing spondylitis
Answer: c.
Polymyositis
65. The von
Willebrand factor (vWF) assay is used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Platelet function
c. Kidney function
d. Coagulation pathways
Answer: b.
Platelet function
66. The
HLA-B27 test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: c.
Ankylosing spondylitis
67. The CEA
(Carcinoembryonic Antigen) test is a tumor marker primarily associated with:
a.
Colorectal cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Breast cancer
Answer: a.
Colorectal cancer
68. The
MPO-ANCA (Myeloperoxidase-Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody) test is
associated with the diagnosis of:
a. Multiple
sclerosis
b. Inflammatory bowel disease
c. Wegener's granulomatosis
d. Psoriasis
Answer: c.
Wegener's granulomatosis
69. The
Tzanck smear is a diagnostic test used for the detection of:
a. Fungal
infections
b. Bacterial infections
c. Viral infections
d. Parasitic infections
Answer: c.
Viral infections
70. The ESR
(Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) is a non-specific marker of:
a.
Inflammation
b. Viral infections
c. Autoimmune diseases
d. Diabetes
Answer: a.
Inflammation
71. The
Widal test is used for the diagnosis of:
a.
Tuberculosis
b. Malaria
c. Typhoid fever
d. Hepatitis B
Answer: c.
Typhoid fever
72. The TSH
(Thyroid Stimulating Hormone) test is commonly used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Kidney function
c. Thyroid function
d. Pancreatic function
Answer: c.
Thyroid function
73. The
Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibody (ASMA) test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a.
Hepatitis B infection
b. Autoimmune hepatitis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Lupus erythematosus
Answer: b.
Autoimmune hepatitis
74. The
serum uric acid test is used to assess:
a. Kidney
function
b. Liver function
c. Thyroid function
d. Pancreatic function
Answer: a.
Kidney function
75. The MMR
(Measles, Mumps, Rubella) titer is measured in serology to assess:
a. Immunity
to common childhood infections
b. Thyroid function
c. Liver function
d. Autoimmune diseases
Answer: a.
Immunity to common childhood infections
76. The
Rheumatoid Factor (RF) test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Gout
Answer: a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
77. The
Prothrombin Time (PT) test assesses the function of:
a.
Platelets
b. Coagulation pathways
c. Red blood cells
d. White blood cells
Answer: b.
Coagulation pathways
78. The
Anti-AChR (Anti-Acetylcholine Receptor) test is used for the diagnosis of:
a. Multiple
sclerosis
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Psoriasis
Answer: b.
Myasthenia gravis
79. The
ANCA (Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibody) test is associated with the
diagnosis of:
a. Multiple
sclerosis
b. Inflammatory bowel disease
c. Wegener's granulomatosis
d. Psoriasis
Answer: c.
Wegener's granulomatosis
80. The
Creatinine Clearance test is used to assess:
a. Liver
function
b. Renal function
c. Thyroid function
d. Pancreatic function
Answer: b.
Renal function
81. The
HbA1c test is primarily used for monitoring:
a. Liver
function
b. Blood glucose levels over time
c. Thyroid function
d. Kidney function
Answer: b.
Blood glucose levels over time
82. The
anti-dsDNA (Anti-double-stranded DNA) test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a. Lupus
erythematosus
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Answer: a.
Lupus erythematosus
83. The
Fibrinogen level is commonly assessed to evaluate:
a. Liver
function
b. Coagulation pathways
c. Thyroid function
d. Pancreatic function
Answer: b.
Coagulation pathways
84. The
Anti-TPO (Antithyroid Peroxidase) test is used in the diagnosis of:
a. Diabetes
mellitus
b. Thyroid disorders
c. Autoimmune hepatitis
d. Lupus erythematosus
Answer: b.
Thyroid disorders
85. The
C-reactive protein (CRP) test is used as a marker of:
a. Liver
function
b. Kidney function
c. Inflammation
d. Thyroid function
Answer: c.
Inflammation
86. The
Ammonia test is often used in the assessment of:
a. Liver
function
b. Kidney function
c. Coagulation pathways
d. Thyroid function
Answer: a.
Liver function
87. The
HLA-B27 test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Ankylosing spondylitis
d. Multiple sclerosis
Answer: c.
Ankylosing spondylitis
88. The CA
27-29 tumor marker is commonly used in the diagnosis and monitoring of:
a.
Colorectal cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Breast cancer
d. Pancreatic cancer
Answer: c.
Breast cancer
89. The
APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) test is commonly used to monitor
the effectiveness of:
a.
Anticoagulant therapy
b. Antibiotic treatment
c. Antihypertensive medications
d. Antidiabetic medications
Answer: a.
Anticoagulant therapy
90. The Anti-Smooth
Muscle Antibody (ASMA) test is associated with the diagnosis of:
a.
Hepatitis B infection
b. Autoimmune hepatitis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Lupus erythematosus
Answer: b.
Autoimmune hepatitis
91. The
anti-centromere antibody is associated with:
a. Systemic
lupus erythematosus (SLE)
b. Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Myasthenia gravis
Answer: b.
Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)
92. The
aldolase enzyme is elevated in conditions affecting:
a. Liver
b. Heart
c. Muscles
d. Kidneys
Answer: c.
Muscles
93. The
MUGA scan is a diagnostic test for assessing:
a. Liver
function
b. Cardiac function
c. Kidney function
d. Lung function
Answer: b.
Cardiac function
94. The
Anti-Jo-1 antibody is associated with which group of autoimmune disorders?
a.
Connective tissue diseases
b. Gastrointestinal diseases
c. Endocrine disorders
d. Neurological disorders
Answer: a.
Connective tissue diseases
95. The
Schilling test is used for the diagnosis of:
a. Anemia
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency
c. Liver disorders
d. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: b.
Vitamin B12 deficiency
96. The
Russell viper venom time (RVVT) test is used to evaluate:
a. Liver
function
b. Coagulation pathways
c. Renal function
d. Thyroid function
Answer: b.
Coagulation pathways
97. The
presence of anti-Sm antibodies is associated with:
a. Systemic
lupus erythematosus (SLE)
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. Psoriasis
Answer: a.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
98. The
sweat chloride test is used in the diagnosis of:
a. Cystic
fibrosis
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Chronic kidney disease
d. Hemochromatosis
Answer: a.
Cystic fibrosis
99. The C3
and C4 complement levels are often measured in the diagnosis of:
a.
Hepatitis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Lupus erythematosus
d. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: c.
Lupus erythematosus
100. The
RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) test is commonly used for the screening of:
a. Syphilis
b. HIV/AIDS
c. Hepatitis B
d. Tuberculosis
Answer: a.
Syphilis
Ø
PART- BLOOD BANK 50 MCQS
Ø PART- SICKLE
CELL 40 MCQS
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MALARIA DISEASE 40 MCQS
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BACTERIAL DISEASE 50 MCQS
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VIROLOGY MCQS 80 MCQS
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IMMUNOLOGY MCQS 100
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CYTOLOGY 80 MCQS
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HISTOPATHOLOGY 100 MCQS
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ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY 100 MCQS
Ø Clinical
Pathology 100 MCQS
Ø Medical
Laboratory Instrumentation 20 MCQS
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Control and Quality Assurance 30 MCQS
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Training 20 MCQS
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Ø TOTAL- 1000
