Translate

MEDICAL LAB TECHNICIAN EXAM MCQS PART 3 Q.NO. 2001 TO 3000

 

MEDICAL LAB TECHNICIAN EXAM MCQS PART 3

Q.NO. 2001 TO 3000

PDF DOWNLOAD  CLICK HERE

Ø PASSWORD BELLOWS SIDE IN LAST QUESTIONS

                PART- BLOOD BANK 50 MCQS

 

1. Question: What is the universal blood donor type?

A. A+

B. O-

C. AB+

D. B-

Answer: B. O-

 

2. Question: Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?

A. AB+

B. O-

C. A-

D. B+

Answer: A. AB+

 

3. Question: What is the most common blood type in the world?

A. AB+

B. A-

C. O+

D. B-

Answer: C. O+

4. Question: Which component of blood is responsible for clotting?

 

A. Platelets

B. Red Blood Cells

C. Plasma

D. White Blood Cells

Answer: A. Platelets

5. Question: What is the term for the process of separating blood into its individual components?

A. Hemolysis

B. Coagulation

C. Centrifugation

D. Agglutination

Answer: C. Centrifugation

 

6. Question: Which blood type is considered the "universal plasma donor"?

 

A. AB+

B. O-

C. A-

D. B+

Answer: A. AB+

 

7. Question: What is the Rh factor also known as?

A. Rhodium

B. Rhesus

C. Rhinovirus

D. Rhubarb

Answer: B. Rhesus

 

8. Question: Which blood group is known as the "Bombay blood group"?

A. A+

B. O-

C. AB+

D. O(h)

Answer: D. O(h)

9. Question: Which blood component is responsible for carrying oxygen to the body tissues?

 

A. Platelets

B. Red Blood Cells

C. Plasma

D. White Blood Cells

Answer: B. Red Blood Cells

 

10. Question: In the ABO blood group system, which antigens are present in type B blood?

- A. A antigens

- B. B antigens

- C. Both A and B antigens

- D. No antigens

**Answer: B. B antigens**

11. Question: Which blood type can a person with AB- receive in a blood transfusion?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B+

 

**Answer: B. O-**

12. Question: What is the term for an abnormal immune response to blood transfusion, leading to the destruction of transfused red blood cells?

- A. Hemolysis

- B. Agglutination

- C. Coagulation

- D. Transfusion Reaction

 

**Answer: D. Transfusion Reaction**

13. Question: What is the primary purpose of crossmatching in blood banking?

- A. Determine blood type

- B. Identify infectious agents

- C. Assess donor-recipient compatibility

- D. Measure clotting factors

 

**Answer: C. Assess donor-recipient compatibility**

14. Question: Which blood type is considered the rarest among the ABO groups?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B-

 

**Answer: A. AB-**

15. Question: What is the significance of the term "antibody screen" in blood banking?

- A. Screening for infectious agents in donated blood

- B. Detecting antibodies in the recipient's plasma

- C. Testing clotting factors in the blood

- D. Assessing red blood cell morphology

 

**Answer: B. Detecting antibodies in the recipient's plasma**

16. Question: Which laboratory test is performed to identify the presence of antibodies in a person's blood?

- A. Hemoglobin test

- B. Blood typing

- C. Direct Coombs test

- D. Complete Blood Count (CBC)

 

**Answer: C. Direct Coombs test**

17. Question: What is the purpose of cryoprecipitate in blood transfusion?

- A. Increase platelet count

- B. Provide clotting factors

- C. Enhance oxygen-carrying capacity

- D. Prevent allergic reactions

 

**Answer: B. Provide clotting factors**

18. Question: Which condition is characterized by an inadequate number of red blood cells or a deficiency of hemoglobin in the blood?

- A. Hemophilia

- B. Anemia

- C. Leukemia

- D. Thrombocytopenia

 

**Answer: B. Anemia**

19. Question: What is the primary purpose of storing blood in a blood bank?

- A. Prolong shelf life

- B. Prevent clotting

- C. Maintain temperature

- D. Ensure availability for transfusions

 

**Answer: D. Ensure availability for transfusions**

20. Question: In the Rh system, if a person is Rh-negative, what antibodies may be naturally present in their plasma?

- A. Anti-A

- B. Anti-B

- C. Anti-Rh

- D. No antibodies

 

**Answer: D. No antibodies**

21. Question: Which blood component is responsible for immune defense and fighting infections?

- A. Platelets

- B. Red Blood Cells

- C. Plasma

- D. White Blood Cells

 

**Answer: D. White Blood Cells**

22. Question: What is the primary antibody present in the plasma of a person with blood type B?

- A. Anti-A

- B. Anti-B

- C. Anti-AB

- D. Anti-Rh

 

**Answer: A. Anti-A**

23. Question: What is the purpose of the term "autologous donation" in blood banking?

- A. Donating blood for oneself

- B. Donating blood for a family member

- C. Donating blood for research purposes

- D. Donating blood for emergency use

 

**Answer: A. Donating blood for oneself**

24. Question: Which blood type is considered the "universal red cell donor" in emergency situations?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B+

 

**Answer: B. O-**

25. Question: What is the maximum storage time for packed red blood cells in a blood bank refrigerator?

- A. 14 days

- B. 21 days

- C. 30 days

- D. 45 days

 

**Answer: B. 21 days**

26. Question: In blood banking, what does the term "apheresis" refer to?

- A. Separation of blood components using centrifugation

- B. Blood transfusion from one individual to another

- C. Clotting of blood during storage

- D. Testing for infectious diseases in donated blood

 

**Answer: A. Separation of blood components using centrifugation**

27. Question: Which anticoagulant is commonly used in blood collection tubes for routine blood tests?

- A. Heparin

- B. EDTA

- C. Sodium citrate

- D. Sodium fluoride

 

**Answer: B. EDTA**

28. Question: What is the primary function of the Rh factor in blood typing?

- A. Determining blood type

- B. Controlling clotting factors

- C. Identifying donor compatibility

- D. Predicting Rh incompatibility during pregnancy

 

**Answer: D. Predicting Rh incompatibility during pregnancy**

29. Question: Which blood component is responsible for maintaining blood pressure and electrolyte balance?

- A. Platelets

- B. Red Blood Cells

- C. Plasma

- D. Albumin

 

**Answer: D. Albumin**

30. Question: In the direct Coombs test, what does a positive result indicate?

- A. Presence of antibodies on red blood cells

- B. Absence of antibodies in the plasma

- C. Clumping of red blood cells

- D. Incompatibility between donor and recipient blood

 

**Answer: A. Presence of antibodies on red blood cells**

31. Question: What is the purpose of a tourniquet during the blood donation process?

- A. To minimize blood clotting

- B. To identify veins for needle insertion

- C. To prevent infection

- D. To measure blood pressure

 

**Answer: B. To identify veins for needle insertion**

32. Question: Which blood type is considered the "universal plasma donor" in the ABO system?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B+

 

**Answer: A. AB+**

33. Question: What is the primary function of the Rh factor in the blood?

- A. Clotting

- B. Oxygen transport

- C. Antibody production

- D. Immune response

 

**Answer: B. Oxygen transport**

34. Question: In the ABO blood group system, which blood types can a person with blood type O receive in a transfusion?

- A. O only

- B. A and B

- C. O and AB

- D. O and B

 

35. Question: What is the term for a condition where the recipient's antibodies attack and destroy transfused red blood cells?

- A. Hemolysis

- B. Agglutination

- C. Coagulation

- D. Transfusion reaction

 

**Answer: A. Hemolysis**

36. Question: Which blood component is responsible for maintaining blood pH and electrolyte balance?

- A. Platelets

- B. Red Blood Cells

- C. Plasma

- D. Buffers

 

**Answer: D. Buffers**

37. Question: What is the primary screening test used to determine blood type?

- A. Crossmatching

- B. Hemoglobin test

- C. Blood typing

- D. Coagulation profile

 

**Answer: C. Blood typing**

38. Question: Which blood type is considered the "universal donor" for plasma in the ABO system?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B+

 

**Answer: A. AB+**

39. Question: In blood transfusion, what does the term "irradiated blood" refer to?

- A. Blood exposed to UV light for sterilization

- B. Blood treated with anticoagulants

- C. Blood stored at low temperatures

- D. Blood exposed to ionizing radiation to prevent graft-versus-host disease

 

**Answer: D. Blood exposed to ionizing radiation to prevent graft-versus-host disease**

40. Question: Which blood type is the least common in the ABO system worldwide?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B+

 

**Answer: A. AB+**

41. Question: What is the primary storage temperature for fresh-frozen plasma in a blood bank?

- A. -20°C

- B. -30°C

- C. -40°C

- D. -80°C

 

**Answer: A. -20°C**

42. Question: Which blood type is considered the "universal donor" for whole blood in the ABO system?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B+

 

**Answer: B. O-**

43. Question: What is the purpose of a blood bank's quality control program?

- A. To ensure proper documentation

- B. To monitor temperature conditions

- C. To maintain the accuracy of test results

- D. To manage donor recruitment

 

**Answer: C. To maintain the accuracy of test results**

44. Question: Which blood component is responsible for transporting hormones and nutrients throughout the body?

- A. Platelets

- B. Red Blood Cells

- C. Plasma

- D. White Blood Cells

 

**Answer: C. Plasma**

45. Question: What is the primary screening test for infectious diseases in donated blood?

- A. Blood typing

- B. Hemoglobin test

- C. Crossmatching

- D. Nucleic acid testing (NAT)

 

**Answer: D. Nucleic acid testing (NAT)**

46. Question: What is the purpose of an antiglobulin (Coombs) test in blood banking?

- A. To detect antibodies on red blood cells

- B. To determine blood type

- C. To assess platelet count

- D. To measure clotting factors

 

**Answer: A. To detect antibodies on red blood cells**

47. Question: Which blood component plays a crucial role in maintaining blood pressure and volume?

- A. Platelets

- B. Red Blood Cells

- C. Plasma

- D. Albumin

 

**Answer: D. Albumin**

48. Question: What is the primary function of the RhoGAM injection during pregnancy?

- A. To prevent Rh incompatibility

- B. To induce labor

- C. To enhance fetal development

- D. To increase hemoglobin levels

 

**Answer: A. To prevent Rh incompatibility**

49. Question: In the ABO system, which blood type has both A and B antigens on the red blood cells?

- A. AB+

- B. O-

- C. A-

- D. B+

 

**Answer: A. AB+**

50. Question: What is the term for a blood clot that forms and remains in a blood vessel?

- A. Embolus

- B. Thrombus

- C. Hematoma

- D. Petechia

 

**Answer: B. Thrombus**

 

Ø PART- SICKLE CELL 40 MCQS

1. Question: What is the primary cause of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)?

A. Bacterial infection

B. Genetic mutation

C. Environmental factors

D. Autoimmune response

Answer: B. Genetic mutation

 

2. Question: In Sickle Cell Disease, the mutation affects the production of which protein in red blood cells?

A. Hemoglobin A

B. Hemoglobin B

C. Hemoglobin C

D. Hemoglobin S

Answer: D. Hemoglobin S

 

3. Question: What is the typical shape of red blood cells in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?

A. Biconcave discs

B. Spherical

C. Crescent or sickle-shaped

D. Irregular polygons

Answer: C. Crescent or sickle-shaped

 

4. Question: Which population is most commonly affected by Sickle Cell Disease?

A. Asian

B. European

C. African

D. South American

Answer: C. African

 

5. Question: What is the major clinical manifestation of Sickle Cell Disease?

A. Chronic cough

B. Joint pain

C. Visual impairment

D. Insulin resistance

Answer: B. Joint pain

 

6. Question: Which organ is particularly vulnerable to damage in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?

A. Liver

B. Kidney

C. Heart

D. Spleen

Answer: D. Spleen

 

7. Question: What triggers the sickling of red blood cells in Sickle Cell Disease?

A. High oxygen levels

B. Low oxygen levels

C. Elevated pH

D. Normal blood pH

Answer: B. Low oxygen levels

 

8. Question: Which of the following conditions can result from the blockage of blood vessels by sickled cells in Sickle Cell Disease?

A. Stroke

B. Osteoporosis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Hypertension

Answer: A. Stroke

 

9. Question: What is the recommended treatment for managing pain crises in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?

A. Antibiotics

B. Blood transfusions

C. Pain medications

D. Surgery

Answer: C. Pain medications

 

10. Question: How is Sickle Cell Disease inherited?

- A. Autosomal dominant

- B. Autosomal recessive

- C. X-linked dominant

- D. X-linked recessive

 

**Answer: B. Autosomal recessive**

11. Question: What is the term used to describe the heterozygous condition where an individual carries one normal hemoglobin gene and one sickle hemoglobin gene?

- A. Sickle cell trait

- B. Sickle cell anemia

- C. Sickle cell crisis

- D. Sickle cell pneumonia

 

 

**Answer: A. Sickle cell trait**

12. Question: Which type of hemoglobin is predominant in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease during a crisis?

- A. Hemoglobin A

- B. Hemoglobin B

- C. Hemoglobin C

- D. Hemoglobin S

 

 

**Answer: D. Hemoglobin S**

13. Question: What is the primary role of hydroxyurea in the management of Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Pain relief

- B. Immune system boost

- C. Inducing hemoglobin A production

- D. Reducing the frequency of painful crises

 

 

**Answer: D. Reducing the frequency of painful crises**

14. Question: Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease related to the breakdown of red blood cells?

- A. Hemophilia

- B. Hyperbilirubinemia

- C. Thrombocytosis

- D. Leukopenia

 

**Answer: B. Hyperbilirubinemia**

15. Question: What is the gold standard diagnostic test for confirming Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Complete Blood Count (CBC)

- B. Blood smear

- C. Hemoglobin electrophoresis

- D. Genetic testing

 

 

**Answer: C. Hemoglobin electrophoresis**

16. Question: Which organ is primarily responsible for the production of hemoglobin in the human body?

- A. Liver

- B. Spleen

- C. Bone marrow

- D. Kidney

 

 

**Answer: C. Bone marrow**

17. Question: In addition to pain management, what other therapeutic approach is commonly used for preventing complications in Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Anticoagulant therapy

- B. Blood thinners

- C. Stem cell transplant

- D. Oxygen therapy

 

 

**Answer: C. Stem cell transplant**

18. Question: What is the term for the condition where sickle-shaped cells block small blood vessels, causing pain and organ damage?

- A. Ischemia

- B. Infarction

- C. Hemolysis

- D. Vaso-occlusion

 

**Answer: D. Vaso-occlusion**

19. Question: What preventive measure is recommended for newborns identified with Sickle Cell Disease through newborn screening?

- A. Blood transfusion

- B. Hydroxyurea therapy

- C. Pneumococcal vaccination

- D. Early stem cell transplant

 

 

**Answer: C. Pneumococcal vaccination**

20. Question: Which blood component is affected by the abnormal hemoglobin in Sickle Cell Disease, leading to its characteristic shape?

- A. Platelets

- B. Red Blood Cells

- C. Plasma

- D. White Blood Cells

 

 

**Answer: B. Red Blood Cells**

 

 

21. Question: Which of the following symptoms is NOT commonly associated with a sickle cell crisis?

- A. Abdominal pain

- B. Joint pain

- C. Chest pain

- D. Migraine headaches

 

 

**Answer: D. Migraine headaches**

22. Question: What is the term for the condition where the spleen is damaged and becomes non-functional in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Splenomegaly

- B. Sickle splenic syndrome

- C. Asplenia

- D. Hypersplenism

 

 

**Answer: C. Asplenia**

23. Question: What is the primary goal of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation in Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Pain relief

- B. Cure the disease

- C. Increase red blood cell production

- D. Prevent complications

 

 

**Answer: B. Cure the disease**

24. Question: Which blood type is most commonly associated with Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. A+

- B. O-

- C. B-

- D. S

 

 

**Answer: A. A+**

25. Question: What is the term for the condition where a person with Sickle Cell Disease inherits one sickle cell gene and one gene for hemoglobin C?

- A. Sickle cell trait

- B. Sickle cell anemia

- C. Hemoglobin SC disease

- D. Double heterozygosity

 

 

**Answer: C. Hemoglobin SC disease**

26. Question: What is the primary mechanism by which hydroxyurea exerts its therapeutic effects in Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Increases oxygen affinity of hemoglobin

- B. Stimulates red blood cell production

- C. Induces fetal hemoglobin production

- D. Inhibits sickle cell gene expression

 

**Answer: C. Induces fetal hemoglobin production**

27. Question: What is the term for the inherited condition where a person has two identical sickle cell genes (HbS/HbS)?

- A. Sickle cell trait

- B. Sickle cell anemia

- C. Double heterozygosity

- D. Hemoglobin SC disease

 

 

**Answer: B. Sickle cell anemia**

28. Question: What is the primary function of sickle cell screening programs?

- A. Identify carriers of the sickle cell trait

- B. Diagnose sickle cell complications

- C. Provide pain management

- D. Prevent vaso-occlusive crises

 

 

**Answer: A. Identify carriers of the sickle cell trait**

29. Question: Which of the following organs is particularly susceptible to infections in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease due to impaired immune function?

- A. Lungs

- B. Liver

- C. Kidneys

- D. Pancreas

 

 

**Answer: A. Lungs**

30. Question: What is the term for the acute chest syndrome, a serious complication of Sickle Cell Disease characterized by chest pain and difficulty breathing?

- A. Sickle cell crisis

- B. Vaso-occlusion

- C. Pneumonia

- D. Splenic sequestration

 

**Answer: A. Sickle cell crisis**

31. Question: What is the primary reason for the increased risk of infections in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Impaired immune response

- B. High white blood cell count

- C. Excessive production of antibodies

- D. Presence of abnormal platelets

 

**Answer: A. Impaired immune response**

32. Question: Which of the following complications is associated with the long-term use of hydroxyurea in Sickle Cell Disease treatment?

- A. Increased risk of infection

- B. Pulmonary hypertension

- C. Renal failure

- D. Bone marrow suppression

 

**Answer: D. Bone marrow suppression**

33. Question: What is the term for the condition where sickle-shaped cells block blood flow to the spleen, leading to rapid enlargement and potential life-threatening complications?

- A. Splenic sequestration

- B. Sickle splenic syndrome

- C. Hypersplenism

- D. Sickle cell trait

 

**Answer: A. Splenic sequestration**

34. Question: Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease that results from the destruction of red blood cells and increased bilirubin production?

- A. Hyperthyroidism

- B. Hemochromatosis

- C. Cholecystitis

- D. Gallstones

 

**Answer: D. Gallstones**

35. Question: What is the term for the inherited condition where a person has one sickle cell gene and one gene for beta-thalassemia?

- A. Sickle cell trait

- B. Hemoglobin SC disease

- C. Sickle beta-thalassemia

- D. Sickle cell anemia

 

**Answer: C. Sickle beta-thalassemia**

36. Question: Which of the following complications can result from a lack of oxygen delivery to the bones and joints in Sickle Cell Disease?

- A. Osteoarthritis

- B. Osteoporosis

- C. Avascular necrosis

- D. Rheumatoid arthritis

 

**Answer: C. Avascular necrosis**

37. Question: What is the term for the condition where sickle cells cause the sudden pooling of blood in the spleen, leading to a drop in hemoglobin levels and potential shock?

- A. Splenic sequestration

- B. Vaso-occlusion

- C. Hypersplenism

- D. Sickle splenic syndrome

 

**Answer: A. Splenic sequestration**

38. Question: Which immunization is crucial for preventing infections in individuals with Sickle Cell Disease, particularly those caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?

- A. MMR vaccine

- B. Tetanus vaccine

- C. Pneumococcal vaccine

- D. Hepatitis B vaccine

 

**Answer: C. Pneumococcal vaccine**

39. Question: What is the term for the condition where sickle cells cause a sudden and severe drop in hemoglobin levels, leading to increased blood viscosity and potential stroke?

- A. Splenic sequestration

- B. Aplastic crisis

- C. Hyperhemolysis

- D. Thrombotic crisis

 

**Answer: B. Aplastic crisis**

40. Question: Which of the following is a potential complication of Sickle Cell Disease that results from the formation of blood clots in small blood vessels?

- A. Thrombocytopenia

- B. Deep vein thrombosis

- C. Pulmonary embolism

- D. Hemophilia

 

**Answer: C. Pulmonary embolism**

Ø MALARIA DISEASE 40 MCQS

1. Question: What is the primary cause of malaria?

 

A. Bacteria

B. Parasites

C. Virus

D. Fungi

Answer: B. Parasites

 

2. Question: Which species of Plasmodium is responsible for the most severe form of malaria in humans?

 

A. Plasmodium falciparum

B. Plasmodium vivax

C. Plasmodium malariae

D. Plasmodium ovale

Answer: A. Plasmodium falciparum

 

3. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission of malaria to humans?

 

A. Direct contact

B. Airborne droplets

C. Contaminated water

D. Mosquito bites

Answer: D. Mosquito bites

 

4. Question: In which part of the human body do malaria parasites undergo asexual reproduction?

 

A. Liver

B. Lungs

C. Red blood cells

D. Kidneys

Answer: C. Red blood cells

 

5. Question: Which type of malaria is known for its characteristic 48-hour fever cycle?

 

A. P. vivax malaria

B. P. falciparum malaria

C. P. malariae malaria

D. P. ovale malaria

Answer: C. P. malariae malaria

 

6. Question: Which of the following antimalarial drugs is derived from the bark of the cinchona tree?

 

A. Chloroquine

B. Artemisinin

C. Quinine

D. Mefloquine

Answer: C. Quinine

 

7. Question: What is the characteristic feature of Plasmodium vivax infection regarding relapses?

 

A. No relapses

B. Single relapse

C. Multiple relapses

D. Irregular relapses

Answer: C. Multiple relapses

 

8. Question: Which stage of the malaria parasite's life cycle is responsible for human-to-mosquito transmission?

 

A. Sporozoite

B. Trophozoite

C. Schizont

D. Gametocyte

Answer: D. Gametocyte

 

9. Question: What is the recommended preventive measure for individuals traveling to malaria-endemic areas?

 

A. Hepatitis A vaccination

B. Insect repellent

C. Oral rehydration solution

D. Tuberculosis prophylaxis

Answer: B. Insect repellent

 

10. Question: What is the common name for the mosquito species most responsible for transmitting malaria in Africa?

- A. Anopheles gambiae

- B. Aedes aegypti

- C. Culex pipiens

- D. Anopheles stephensi

 

**Answer: A. Anopheles gambiae**

 

 

11. Question: Which organ is primarily affected during the initial stages of malaria infection?

- A. Liver

- B. Lungs

- C. Spleen

- D. Kidneys

 

 

**Answer: A. Liver**

12. Question: What is the name of the diagnostic test commonly used to detect the presence of malaria parasites in a blood sample?

- A. ELISA test

- B. PCR assay

- C. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT)

- D. Western blot

 

 

**Answer: C. Rapid diagnostic test (RDT)**

13. Question: Which of the following is a common symptom of malaria?

- A. Joint pain

- B. Increased appetite

- C. Hypertension

- D. Euphoria

 

 

**Answer: A. Joint pain**

14. Question: What is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum malaria in many regions where resistance is low?

- A. Chloroquine

- B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)

- C. Quinine

- D. Mefloquine

 

 

**Answer: B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)**

15. Question: In which stage of the malaria life cycle do symptoms typically occur in the human host?

- A. Sporozoite

- B. Trophozoite

- C. Schizont

- D. Gametocyte

 

 

 

**Answer: B. Trophozoite**

16. Question: Which population group is particularly vulnerable to severe malaria, including cerebral malaria?

- A. Adults

- B. Children under 5 years old

- C. Pregnant women

- D. Elderly individuals

 

 

**Answer: B. Children under 5 years old**

17. Question: Which Plasmodium species can cause relapses years after the initial infection?

- A. Plasmodium falciparum

- B. Plasmodium vivax

- C. Plasmodium ovale

- D. Plasmodium malariae

 

 

**Answer: C. Plasmodium ovale**

18. Question: What is the term for the severe form of malaria that can lead to seizures, coma, and death?

- A. Mild malaria

- B. Uncomplicated malaria

- C. Severe malaria

- D. Asymptomatic malaria

 

 

**Answer: C. Severe malaria**

19. Question: What is the primary vector control method for preventing malaria transmission?

- A. Insecticide-treated bed nets

- B. Indoor residual spraying

- C. Larviciding

- D. Genetic modification of mosquitoes

 

 

**Answer: A. Insecticide-treated bed nets**

20. Question: What is the name of the class of drugs that includes artemisinin derivatives, widely used in the treatment of malaria?

- A. Quinolines

- B. Antifolates

- C. Artemisinin-based compounds

- D. Aminoquinolines

 

 

**Answer: C. Artemisinin-based compounds**

 

 

21. Question: What is the primary role of the Anopheles mosquito in the malaria life cycle?

- A. Transmitting the malaria parasite to humans

- B. Acting as a reservoir for the malaria parasite

- C. Causing the initial infection in humans

- D. Producing gametocytes in humans

 

**Answer: A. Transmitting the malaria parasite to humans**

22. Question: What is the term for the dormant form of the malaria parasite that can persist in the liver for an extended period before causing a relapse?

- A. Sporozoite

- B. Trophozoite

- C. Hypnozoite

- D. Gametocyte

 

 

**Answer: C. Hypnozoite**

23. Question: Which continent bears the highest burden of malaria cases globally?

- A. Europe

- B. Asia

- C. Africa

- D. North America

 

 

**Answer: C. Africa**

24. Question: What is the primary mechanism by which artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) work against malaria parasites?

- A. Inhibiting DNA synthesis

- B. Blocking protein synthesis

- C. Disrupting the parasite's cell membrane

- D. Inducing oxidative stress

 

 

**Answer: D. Inducing oxidative stress**

25. Question: Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of severe malaria?

- A. Respiratory distress

- B. Jaundice

- C. Hypotension

- D. Weight gain

 

 

**Answer: D. Weight gain**

26. Question: What is the recommended prophylactic drug for travelers to malaria-endemic areas?

- A. Chloroquine

- B. Doxycycline

- C. Artemether-lumefantrine

- D. Primaquine

 

 

**Answer: B. Doxycycline**

27. Question: Which of the following antimalarial drugs is known for causing vivid dreams or nightmares as a side effect?

- A. Mefloquine

- B. Artemisinin

- C. Atovaquone-proguanil

- D. Quinine

 

 

**Answer: A. Mefloquine**

28. Question: In which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle do merozoites burst out of infected red blood cells, leading to the release of new parasites?

- A. Sporozoite

- B. Trophozoite

- C. Schizont

- D. Gametocyte

 

 

**Answer: C. Schizont**

29. Question: What is the term for the phenomenon where individuals living in malaria-endemic areas develop partial immunity to severe forms of the disease over time?

- A. Acquired resistance

- B. Immune tolerance

- C. Malaria adaptation

- D. Premunition

 

 

**Answer: D. Premunition**

30. Question: What is the primary target of the malaria parasite in the human host during the asexual stage of its life cycle?

- A. Liver cells

- B. Red blood cells

- C. Lung cells

- D. Nervous system cells

 

 

**Answer: B. Red blood cells**

31. Question: What is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax or Plasmodium ovale, considering their ability to form hypnozoites?

- A. Chloroquine

- B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)

- C. Primaquine

- D. Mefloquine

 

 

**Answer: C. Primaquine**

32. Question: Which symptom distinguishes malaria from other febrile illnesses such as dengue and typhoid fever?

- A. Joint pain

- B. Headache

- C. Jaundice

- D. Cyclical fever spikes

 

 

**Answer: D. Cyclical fever spikes**

33. Question: What is the role of the female Anopheles mosquito in the transmission of the malaria parasite?

- A. It injects sporozoites into the human bloodstream during a blood meal.

- B. It lays eggs in stagnant water.

- C. It harbors the dormant form of the parasite.

- D. It produces gametocytes.

 

 

**Answer: A. It injects sporozoites into the human bloodstream during a blood meal.**

34. Question: In which geographic region is malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax most commonly found?

- A. Sub-Saharan Africa

- B. Southeast Asia

- C. South America

- D. Central Asia

 

 

**Answer: B. Southeast Asia**

35. Question: Which antimalarial drug is known for its use in the prevention of malaria during pregnancy due to its safety for the fetus?

- A. Doxycycline

- B. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)

- C. Mefloquine

- D. Chloroquine

 

 

**Answer: D. Chloroquine**

36. Question: What is the term for the condition where individuals carry the malaria parasite without showing symptoms and serve as a potential reservoir for transmission?

- A. Symptomatic carriers

- B. Asymptomatic carriers

- C. Hyperparasitemia

- D. Resistant carriers

 

 

**Answer: B. Asymptomatic carriers**

37. Question: Which type of malaria is known for causing a more prolonged and chronic infection in the human host?

- A. Plasmodium falciparum malaria

- B. Plasmodium vivax malaria

- C. Plasmodium ovale malaria

- D. Plasmodium malariae malaria

 

 

**Answer: D. Plasmodium malariae malaria**

38. Question: What is the primary mechanism of action of quinoline antimalarial drugs like chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine?

- A. Inhibition of parasite enzymes

- B. Disruption of parasite cell membrane

- C. Inhibition of DNA synthesis

- D. Induction of oxidative stress

 

 

**Answer: C. Inhibition of DNA synthesis**

39. Question: Which organ is targeted by Plasmodium falciparum during the severe form of malaria known as cerebral malaria?

- A. Liver

- B. Lungs

- C. Brain

- D. Spleen

 

 

**Answer: C. Brain**

40. Question: What is the most effective method for preventing the spread of drug-resistant malaria parasites?

- A. Developing new antimalarial drugs

- B. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment

- C. Vector control measures

- D. Mass drug administration

 

 

**Answer: B. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment**

 

Ø BACTERIAL DISEASE 50 MCQS

1. Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis in humans?

 

A. Escherichia coli

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C. Streptococcus pneumoniae

D. Staphylococcus aureus

Answer: B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

 

2. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for Escherichia coli (E. coli) infections?

 

A. Airborne droplets

B. Contaminated food and water

C. Sexual contact

D. Blood transfusions

Answer: B. Contaminated food and water

 

3. Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing Lyme disease?

 

A. Borrelia burgdorferi

B. Clostridium tetani

C. Salmonella enterica

D. Haemophilus influenzae

Answer: A. Borrelia burgdorferi

 

4. Question: What is the primary symptom of infection with Helicobacter pylori?

 

A. Diarrhoea

B. Abdominal pain

C. Respiratory distress

D. Skin rash

Answer: B. Abdominal pain

 

5. Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

 

A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Escherichia coli

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D. Clostridium difficile

Answer: B. Escherichia coli

 

6. Question: What bacterial genus includes species that cause food poisoning, such as Salmonella and E. coli?

 

A. Clostridium

B. Listeria

C. Enterococcus

D. Salmonella

Answer: D. Salmonella

 

7. Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing dental caries (tooth decay)?

 

A. Streptococcus mutans

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer: A. Streptococcus mutans

 

8. Question: What bacterial pathogen is associated with the development of peptic ulcers in the stomach?

 

A. Helicobacter pylori

B. Clostridium difficile

C. Escherichia coli

D. Staphylococcus aureus

Answer: A. Helicobacter pylori

 

9. Question: Which bacterial disease is transmitted through the bite of infected fleas and can cause severe pneumonia and septicaemia?

 

A. Tetanus

B. Plague

C. Diphtheria

D. Anthrax

Answer: B. Plague

 

10. Question: What bacterial genus includes species that can cause both strep throat and necrotizing fasciitis (flesh-eating disease)?

- A. Streptococcus

- B. Staphylococcus

- C. Neisseria

- D. Clostridium

 

 

**Answer: A. Streptococcus**

 

 

11. Question: Which bacterium is associated with the formation of pseudo membranes in the throat and respiratory tract, leading to a condition known as diphtheria?

- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae

- B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

- C. Neisseria meningitidis

- D. Clostridium botulinum

 

**Answer: B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae**

12. Question: What is the causative agent of urinary tract infections that can ascend to the kidneys, causing pyelonephritis?

- A. Escherichia coli

- B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae

- D. Enterococcus faecalis

 

 

**Answer: A. Escherichia coli**

13. Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection?

- A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

- B. Treponema pallidum

- C. Chlamydia trachomatis

- D. Mycoplasma genitalium

 

 

**Answer: B. Treponema pallidum**

14. Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with the development of pneumonia in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS?

- A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

- B. Legionella pneumophila

- C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

 

 

**Answer: C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa**

15. Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the formation of a toxin that can cause severe muscle spasms and respiratory failure, known as "lockjaw"?

- A. Botulism

- B. Tetanus

- C. Anthrax

- D. Pertussis

 

 

**Answer: B. Tetanus**

16. Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing bubonic, septicaemic, and pneumonic forms of disease, collectively known as the Black Death in medieval Europe?

- A. Yersinia pestis

- B. Francisella tularensis

- C. Bacillus anthracis

- D. Mycobacterium leprae

 

 

**Answer: A. Yersinia pestis**

17. Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with foodborne intoxications and is responsible for causing symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhoea?

- A. Listeria monocytogenes

- B. Clostridium difficile

- C. Bacillus cereus

- D. Shigella flexneri

 

 

**Answer: C. Bacillus cereus**

18. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis, causing sexually transmitted infections as well as eye infections in newborns?

- A. Airborne droplets

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Contaminated water

- D. Vector bites

 

**Answer: B. Sexual contact**

19. Question: Which bacterial species is responsible for causing Legionnaires' disease, a severe form of pneumonia often associated with contaminated water sources?

- A. Mycobacterium avium

- B. Legionella pneumophila

- C. Streptococcus agalactiae

- D. Haemophilus influenzae

 

**Answer: B. Legionella pneumophila**

20. Question: What is the common name for the bacterial infection caused by Yersinia enterocolitica, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhoea?

- A. Campylobacteriosis

- B. Yersiniosis

- C. Shigellosis

- D. E. coli infection

 

 

**Answer: B. Yersiniosis**

 

 

21. Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing whooping cough, a highly contagious respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and young children?

- A. Bordetella pertussis

- B. Streptococcus pyogenes

- C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

- D. Haemophilus influenzae

 

 

**Answer: A. Bordetella pertussis**

22. Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with community-acquired pneumonia and is a leading cause of respiratory tract infections in adults?

- A. Legionella pneumophila

- B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

- C. Chlamydia pneumoniae

- D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

 

**Answer: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae**

23. Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing gas gangrene, a condition characterized by the rapid destruction of muscle tissue?

- A. Clostridium difficile

- B. Clostridium perfringens

- C. Clostridium botulinum

- D. Clostridium tetani

 

 

**Answer: B. Clostridium perfringens**

24. Question: Which bacterial species is a common cause of food poisoning associated with improperly cooked poultry and eggs?

- A. Clostridium difficile

- B. Salmonella enterica

- C. Escherichia coli

- D. Campylobacter jejune

 

**Answer: B. Salmonella enterica**

25. Question: What bacterium is associated with the development of stomach ulcers and is known for its ability to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach?

- A. Escherichia coli

- B. Helicobacter pylori

- C. Campylobacter jejuni

- D. Clostridium difficile

 

**Answer: B. Helicobacter pylori**

26. Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the development of a characteristic skin lesion called a chancre at the site of initial infection?

- A. Syphilis

- B. Gonorrhoea

- C. Chlamydia

- D. Trichomoniasis

 

**Answer: A. Syphilis**

27. Question: What bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing Q fever, a zoonotic disease transmitted to humans from infected animals?

- A. Coxiella burnetii

- B. Francisella tularensis

- C. Rickettsia rickettsii

- D. Bartonella henselae

 

**Answer: A. Coxiella burnetii**

28. Question: Which bacterial species is associated with the development of respiratory tract infections and is a common cause of otitis media in children?

- A. Moraxella catarrhalis

- B. Staphylococcus aureus

- C. Haemophilus influenzae

- D. Streptococcus pyogenes

 

**Answer: C. Haemophilus influenzae**

29. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, causing the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea?

- A. Airborne droplets

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Contaminated food

- D. Vector bites

 

**Answer: B. Sexual contact**

30. Question: Which bacterial pathogen is responsible for causing melioidosis, a tropical disease with symptoms ranging from pneumonia to severe septicemia?

- A. Burkholderia pseudomallei

- B. Vibrio cholerae

- C. Clostridium difficile

- D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

 

**Answer: A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**

 

   

31. Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with urinary tract infections and is known for its ability to form biofilms on catheters and medical devices?

- A. Escherichia coli

- B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

- C. Proteus mirabilis

- D. Enterococcus faecalis

 

**Answer: C. Proteus mirabilis**

32. Question: Which bacterium is responsible for causing typhoid fever, a systemic infection characterized by prolonged fever, abdominal pain, and constipation or diarrhea?

- A. Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi

- B. Escherichia coli

- C. Shigella dysenteriae

- D. Clostridium difficile

 

**Answer: A. Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi**

33. Question: What bacterial pathogen is commonly associated with causing community-acquired pneumonia and is often implicated in outbreaks among crowded populations?

- A. Streptococcus pyogenes

- B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

- C. Legionella pneumophila

- D. Chlamydia pneumoniae

 

**Answer: C. Legionella pneumophila**

34. Question: Which bacterial species is a common cause of nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections, particularly in immunocompromised patients and those with indwelling catheters?

- A. Staphylococcus aureus

- B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

- C. Clostridium difficile

- D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

 

 

**Answer: B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa**

35. Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing brucellosis, a zoonotic disease transmitted to humans from infected animals, often through the consumption of unpasteurized dairy products?

- A. Brucella spp.

- B. Yersinia enterocolitica

- C. Coxiella burnetii

- D. Leptospira interrogans

 

 

**Answer: A. Brucella spp.**

36. Question: Which bacterial infection is characterized by the presence of "rice water" stools and is associated with contaminated water and poor sanitation?

- A. Cholera

- B. Shigellosis

- C. Campylobacteriosis

- D. Typhoid fever

 

 

**Answer: A. Cholera**

37. Question: What bacterial species is commonly associated with causing respiratory tract infections, particularly in children, and is a common cause of otitis media?

- A. Haemophilus influenzae

- B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

- C. Neisseria meningitidis

- D. Moraxella catarrhalis

 

**Answer: D. Moraxella catarrhalis**

38. Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing gastroenteritis through the consumption of contaminated food, particularly poultry and eggs?

- A. Salmonella enterica

- B. Escherichia coli

- C. Campylobacter jejuni

- D. Clostridium perfringens

 

 

**Answer: C. Campylobacter jejuni**

39. Question: What bacterial species is responsible for causing urinary tract infections and is known for its ability to produce urease, leading to the formation of urinary stones?

- A. Escherichia coli

- B. Proteus mirabilis

- C. Klebsiella pneumoniae

- D. Enterococcus faecalis

 

 

**Answer: B. Proteus mirabilis**

40. Question: Which bacterium is associated with causing melioidosis, a disease characterized by abscess formation in various organs, particularly in regions with tropical climates?

- A. Burkholderia pseudomallei

- B. Vibrio cholerae

- C. Francisella tularensis

- D. Clostridium perfringens

 

 

**Answer: A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**

41. Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing Legionnaires' disease, a severe form of pneumonia often associated with contaminated water sources, air conditioning systems, and hot tubs?

- A. Legionella pneumophila

- B. Mycobacterium avium

- C. Chlamydia pneumoniae

- D. Streptococcus pyogenes

 

 

**Answer: A. Legionella pneumophila**

42. Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with causing gastroenteritis through the consumption of raw or undercooked seafood, particularly oysters?

- A. Vibrio cholerae

- B. Campylobacter jejuni

- C. Escherichia coli

- D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus

 

 

**Answer: D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus**

43. Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing pertussis, also known as whooping cough, a highly contagious respiratory disease characterized by severe coughing fits?

- A. Bordetella pertussis

- B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

- C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

- D. Haemophilus influenzae

 

 

**Answer: A. Bordetella pertussis**

44. Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing peptic ulcers and gastric cancer and is capable of surviving in the acidic environment of the stomach?

- A. Helicobacter pylori

- B. Clostridium difficile

- C. Escherichia coli

- D. Listeria monocytogenes

 

 

**Answer: A. Helicobacter pylori**

45. Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing tularemia, a zoonotic disease that can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals or bites from certain arthropods?

- A. Francisella tularensis

- B. Yersinia pestis

- C. Bacillus anthracis

- D. Coxiella burnetii

 

 

**Answer: A. Francisella tularensis**

46. Question: Which bacterial species is commonly associated with causing urinary tract infections in individuals with anatomical abnormalities of the urinary tract, such as vesicoureteral reflux?

- A. Escherichia coli

- B. Klebsiella pneumoniae

- C. Proteus mirabilis

- D. Enterococcus faecalis

 

 

**Answer: C. Proteus mirabilis**

47. Question: What bacterium is responsible for causing melioidosis, a potentially severe disease endemic in Southeast Asia and Northern Australia?

- A. Burkholderia pseudomallei

- B. Vibrio cholerae

- C. Clostridium perfringens

- D. Mycobacterium avium

 

 

**Answer: A. Burkholderia pseudomallei**

48. Question: Which bacterial pathogen is associated with causing cat scratch fever, a condition transmitted to humans through scratches or bites from infected cats?

- A. Bartonella henselae

- B. Coxiella burnetii

- C. Yersinia enterocolitica

- D. Rickettsia rickettsii

 

 

**Answer: A. Bartonella henselae**

49. Question: What bacterial species is responsible for causing whooping cough, especially in infants, and can lead to severe respiratory distress?

- A. Bordetella pertussis

- B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

- C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

- D. Haemophilus influenzae

 

 

**Answer: A. Bordetella pertussis**

50. Question: Which bacterium is associated with causing leprosy, a chronic infectious disease that primarily affects the skin, peripheral nerves, and mucous membranes of the respiratory tract?

- A. Mycobacterium leprae

- B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

- C. Mycobacterium avium

- D. Mycobacterium bovis

 

 

**Answer: A. Mycobacterium leprae**

Ø VIROLOGY MCQS 80 MCQS

1. Question: What is the genetic material of a virus?

 

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. Both DNA and RNA

D. Neither DNA nor RNA

Answer: C. Both DNA and RNA

 

2. Question: Which enzyme is responsible for replicating viral RNA into DNA in retroviruses?

 

A. Reverse transcriptase

B. RNA polymerase

C. DNA ligase

D. Helicase

Answer: A. Reverse transcriptase

 

3. Question: What is the outer protein coat of a virus called?

 

A. Capsule

B. Envelope

C. Capsid

D. Membrane

Answer: C. Capsid

 

4. Question: In which host cell organelle does the replication of many viruses take place?

 

A. Nucleus

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Mitochondria

D. Golgi apparatus

Answer: A. Nucleus

 

5. Question: What is the primary function of the viral envelope?

 

A. Protection of the viral genome

B. Facilitating viral entry into host cells

C. Providing structural support

D. Enabling viral replication

Answer: B. Facilitating viral entry into host cells

 

6. Question: Which type of virus utilizes reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into DNA inside the host cell?

 

A. Retrovirus

B. Orthomyxovirus

C. Picornavirus

D. Adenovirus

Answer: A. Retrovirus

 

7. Question: What is the term for a virus that infects bacteria?

 

A. Bacteriophage

B. Retrovirus

C. Viroid

D. Prion

Answer: A. Bacteriophage

 

8. Question: Which viral family does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) belong to?

 

A. Herpesviridae

B. Retroviridae

C. Papillomaviridae

D. Adenoviridae

Answer: B. Retroviridae

 

9. Question: What is the name of the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus?

 

A. Capsid

B. Enzyme

C. Matrix

D. Spikes

Answer: A. Capsid

 

10. Question: What is the process by which a virus enters a host cell and releases its genetic material?

- A. Replication

- B. Transcription

- C. Translation

- D. Entry or penetration

 

makefile

Copy code

**Answer: D. Entry or penetration**

 

 

11. Question: What is the term for a virus that contains both RNA and DNA in its genome?

- A. Retrovirus

- B. Picornavirus

- C. Flavivirus

- D. Orthomyxovirus

 

**Answer: A. Retrovirus**

12. Question: Which viral enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of complementary RNA strands during the replication of RNA viruses?

- A. Reverse transcriptase

- B. RNA polymerase

- C. DNA ligase

- D. Helicase

 

**Answer: B. RNA polymerase**

13. Question: What is the name of the process by which a virus acquires an envelope from the host cell membrane during budding?

- A. Lysis

- B. Exocytosis

- C. Endocytosis

- D. Maturation

 

**Answer: B. Exocytosis**

14. Question: Which virus is associated with the development of the common cold?

- A. Influenza virus

- B. Rhinovirus

- C. Coronavirus

- D. Adenovirus

 

**Answer: B. Rhinovirus**

15. Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cleaving and processing viral polyproteins into functional proteins during replication?

- A. Protease

- B. Ligase

- C. Polymerase

- D. Helicase

 

**Answer: A. Protease**

16. Question: Which type of virus is known for causing persistent infections and may lead to chronic diseases, such as liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma?

- A. Retrovirus

- B. Hepadnavirus

- C. Flavivirus

- D. Herpesvirus

 

**Answer: B. Hepadnavirus**

17. Question: What is the primary target of the human papillomavirus (HPV)?

- A. Skin cells

- B. Liver cells

- C. Nervous system cells

- D. Epithelial cells

 

**Answer: D. Epithelial cells**

18. Question: Which viral family includes viruses that cause diseases such as measles, mumps, and rubella?

- A. Picornaviridae

- B. Togaviridae

- C. Paramyxoviridae

- D. Herpesviridae

 

**Answer: C. Paramyxoviridae**

19. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

- A. Airborne droplets

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Contaminated food

- D. Vector bites

 

**Answer: B. Sexual contact**

20. Question: Which viral family does the influenza virus belong to?

- A. Retroviridae

- B. Orthomyxoviridae

- C. Picornaviridae

- D. Flaviviridae

 

**Answer: B. Orthomyxoviridae**

 

 

21. Question: What is the primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) in the human body?

- A. T cells

- B. Liver cells

- C. Neurons

- D. Epithelial cells

 

 

**Answer: A. T cells**

22. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing chickenpox during primary infection and may later reappear as shingles?

- A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)

- B. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)

- C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

- D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

 

**Answer: C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)**

23. Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for unwinding the double-stranded DNA during replication?

- A. Reverse transcriptase

- B. DNA polymerase

- C. Helicase

- D. RNA polymerase

 

**Answer: C. Helicase**

24. Question: Which hepatitis virus is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route, causing symptoms such as jaundice and liver inflammation?

- A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)

- B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

- C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

- D. Hepatitis D virus (HDV)

 

**Answer: A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)**

25. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the Zika virus?

- A. Mosquito bites

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Blood transfusions

- D. Airborne droplets

 

**Answer: A. Mosquito bites**

26. Question: Which viral family includes the human herpesviruses, such as herpes simplex virus, varicella-zoster virus, and cytomegalovirus?

- A. Herpesviridae

- B. Adenoviridae

- C. Papillomaviridae

- D. Paramyxoviridae

 

**Answer: A. Herpesviridae**

27. Question: What is the name of the protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus, excluding the envelope?

- A. Capsid

- B. Enzyme

- C. Matrix

- D. Spikes

 

**Answer: A. Capsid**

28. Question: Which viral family includes the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

- A. Retroviridae

- B. Togaviridae

- C. Flaviviridae

- D. Orthomyxoviridae

 

**Answer: A. Retroviridae**

29. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the Ebola virus?

- A. Mosquito bites

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Airborne droplets

- D. Contact with infected bodily fluids

 

**Answer: D. Contact with infected bodily fluids**

30. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious mononucleosis (mono)?

- A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

- B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

- C. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

- D. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)

 

**Answer: A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**

 

 

31. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the rabies virus?

- A. Mosquito bites

- B. Airborne droplets

- C. Contact with infected blood

- D. Animal bites, particularly from mammals

 

**Answer: D. Animal bites, particularly from mammals**

32. Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing dengue fever, Zika virus, and yellow fever?

- A. Flaviviridae

- B. Togaviridae

- C. Coronaviridae

- D. Picornaviridae

 

**Answer: A. Flaviviridae**

33. Question: What is the name of the phenomenon where a virus integrates its genetic material into the host cell's genome and remains latent?

- A. Lytic cycle

- B. Budding

- C. Lysogeny

- D. Transduction

 

**Answer: C. Lysogeny**

34. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing the majority of cervical cancer cases?

- A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

- B. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

- C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

- D. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

 

**Answer: A. Human papillomavirus (HPV)**

35. Question: What is the name of the protein spikes on the surface of the influenza virus that determine its subtype?

- A. Capsid

- B. Hemagglutinin (HA)

- C. Neuraminidase (NA)

- D. Matrix protein

 

**Answer: B. Hemagglutinin (HA)**

36. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing hand, foot, and mouth disease in children?

- A. Coxsackievirus

- B. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

- C. Rotavirus

- D. Norovirus

 

 

**Answer: A. Coxsackievirus**

37. Question: What is the primary target of the measles virus in the human body?

- A. Liver cells

- B. Respiratory epithelial cells

- C. Immune system cells

- D. Nervous system cells

 

 

**Answer: B. Respiratory epithelial cells**

38. Question: Which viral enzyme is responsible for cleaving and processing viral polyproteins into individual functional proteins during the replication of picornaviruses?

- A. Protease

- B. Reverse transcriptase

- C. RNA polymerase

- D. Helicase

 

**Answer: A. Protease**

39. Question: What is the term for the process by which a virus acquires its envelope as it exits the host cell?

- A. Exocytosis

- B. Budding

- C. Maturation

- D. Fusion

 

**Answer: B. Budding**

40. Question: Which virus is associated with causing hemorrhagic fevers such as Ebola virus disease and Marburg virus disease?

- A. Filovirus

- B. Arenavirus

- C. Flavivirus

- D. Bunyavirus

 

**Answer: A. Filovirus**

 

 

41. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious hepatitis and is commonly transmitted through contaminated food and water?

- A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)

- B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

- C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

- D. Hepatitis D virus (HDV)

 

 

**Answer: A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)**

42. Question: What is the name of the antiviral drug commonly used to treat influenza infections by inhibiting neuraminidase?

- A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

- B. Acyclovir

- C. Ribavirin

- D. Interferon

 

**Answer: A. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)**

43. Question: Which viral family does the human cytomegalovirus (CMV) belong to?

- A. Herpesviridae

- B. Flaviviridae

- C. Coronaviridae

- D. Togaviridae

 

**Answer: A. Herpesviridae**

44. Question: What is the name of the process by which a virus transfers its genetic material from one host cell to another using a bacteriophage as a vector?

- A. Transduction

- B. Conjugation

- C. Transformation

- D. Replication

 

**Answer: A. Transduction**

45. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing the majority of cases of the common cold?

- A. Rhinovirus

- B. Influenza virus

- C. Coronavirus

- D. Adenovirus

 

**Answer: A. Rhinovirus**

46. Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for synthesizing DNA from an RNA template during retrovirus replication?

- A. RNA polymerase

- B. Reverse transcriptase

- C. DNA ligase

- D. Helicase

 

**Answer: B. Reverse transcriptase**

47. Question: Which virus is associated with causing roseola, a childhood illness characterized by a high fever and a rash that appears after the fever breaks?

- A. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

- B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)

- C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

- D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

 

**Answer: B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)**

48. Question: Which viral family includes the viruses responsible for causing the common cold, bronchitis, and pneumonia?

- A. Picornaviridae

- B. Coronaviridae

- C. Paramyxoviridae

- D. Orthomyxoviridae

 

 

**Answer: D. Orthomyxoviridae**

49. Question: What is the name of the phenomenon where a virus enters a state of dormancy within the host cell without causing immediate harm?

- A. Latency

- B. Budding

- C. Fusion

- D. Maturation

 

**Answer: A. Latency**

50. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)?

- A. Influenza virus

- B. Coronavirus

- C. Rhinovirus

- D. Paramyxovirus

 

**Answer: B. Coronavirus**

51. Question: Which virus is associated with causing Kaposi's sarcoma, a cancer often seen in immunocompromised individuals such as those with HIV/AIDS?

- A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

- B. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

- C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

- D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

 

**Answer: B. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**

52. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the hepatitis B virus (HBV)?

- A. Airborne droplets

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Contaminated food

- D. Contact with infected blood and body fluids

 

**Answer: D. Contact with infected blood and body fluids**

53. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing infectious gastroenteritis and is often transmitted through contaminated food and water?

- A. Norovirus

- B. Rotavirus

- C. Adenovirus

- D. Astrovirus

 

**Answer: A. Norovirus**

54. Question: What is the term for the outermost protein layer surrounding the viral genome in some viruses, contributing to protection and attachment?

- A. Capsid

- B. Matrix

- C. Envelope

- D. Spikes

 

 

**Answer: C. Envelope**

55. Question: Which virus is associated with causing hand, foot, and mouth disease, particularly in young children?

- A. Coxsackievirus

- B. Rotavirus

- C. Norovirus

- D. Adenovirus

 

makefile

Copy code

**Answer: A. Coxsackievirus**

56. Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for synthesizing DNA from an RNA template during reverse transcription in retroviruses?

- A. DNA polymerase

- B. Reverse transcriptase

- C. RNA polymerase

- D. Helicase

 

**Answer: B. Reverse transcriptase**

57. Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing mumps and parainfluenza?

- A. Picornaviridae

- B. Togaviridae

- C. Paramyxoviridae

- D. Orthomyxoviridae

 

**Answer: C. Paramyxoviridae**

58. Question: What is the name of the glycoprotein spikes on the surface of the HIV virus that facilitate entry into host cells?

- A. Capsid

- B. Hemagglutinin (HA)

- C. Neuraminidase (NA)

- D. gp120 and gp41

 

 

**Answer: D. gp120 and gp41**

59. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing yellow fever, a disease transmitted by mosquitoes in tropical and subtropical regions?

- A. Flavivirus

- B. Togavirus

- C. Bunyavirus

- D. Arenavirus

 

 

**Answer: A. Flavivirus**

60. Question: What is the primary target of the poliovirus in the human body?

- A. Liver cells

- B. Nervous system cells

- C. Epithelial cells

- D. T cells

 

**Answer: B. Nervous system cells**

 

 

61. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing severe liver disease, including cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma?

- A. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)

- B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

- C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

- D. Hepatitis E virus (HEV)

 

**Answer: C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)**

62. Question: What is the term for the protective protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid of a virus, including the capsid and envelope?

- A. Matrix

- B. Nucleocapsid

- C. Spikes

- D. Envelope

 

**Answer: B. Nucleocapsid**

63. Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS) and hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS)?

- A. Flaviviridae

- B. Arenaviridae

- C. Bunyaviridae

- D. Togaviridae

 

**Answer: C. Bunyaviridae**

64. Question: What is the name of the protein responsible for the attachment of a virus to host cells during the initial stages of infection?

- A. Capsid

- B. Matrix

- C. Envelope

- D. Receptor-binding protein

 

**Answer: D. Receptor-binding protein**

65. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections, particularly in infants and young children?

- A. Influenza virus

- B. Parainfluenza virus

- C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

- D. Rhinovirus

 

 

**Answer: C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)**

66. Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cutting host cell mRNA during the process of cap-snatching in influenza virus replication?

- A. Protease

- B. Neuraminidase

- C. RNA polymerase

- D. Endonuclease

 

 

**Answer: D. Endonuclease**

67. Question: Which virus is associated with causing roseola infantum, a common childhood illness characterized by a high fever and a rash that appears after the fever subsides?

- A. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

- B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)

- C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

- D. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

 

**Answer: B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)**

68. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the mumps virus?

- A. Airborne droplets

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Contaminated food

- D. Respiratory secretions

 

 

**Answer: D. Respiratory secretions**

69. Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19)?

- A. Coronaviridae

- B. Orthomyxoviridae

- C. Paramyxoviridae

- D. Filoviridae

 

 

**Answer: A. Coronaviridae**

70. Question: What is the name of the process by which enveloped viruses enter host cells by merging with the host cell membrane?

- A. Endocytosis

- B. Budding

- C. Fusion

- D. Lysis

 

 

**Answer: C. Fusion**

 

 

71. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing mononucleosis-like symptoms and is associated with the development of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS)?

- A. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

- B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

- C. Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

- D. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

 

 

**Answer: B. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)**

72. Question: What is the primary mode of transmission for the West Nile virus?

- A. Mosquito bites

- B. Sexual contact

- C. Airborne droplets

- D. Contaminated food

 

 

**Answer: A. Mosquito bites**

73. Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing the common cold and bronchiolitis in infants?

- A. Coronaviridae

- B. Adenoviridae

- C. Picornaviridae

- D. Paramyxoviridae

 

 

**Answer: B. Adenoviridae**

74. Question: What is the term for the process by which viral RNA is translated directly into protein without the need for reverse transcription?

- A. Transcription

- B. Translation

- C. Replication

- D. Reverse transcription

 

 

**Answer: B. Translation**

75. Question: Which virus is associated with causing a severe respiratory illness known as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)?

- A. Influenza virus

- B. Coronavirus

- C. Rhinovirus

- D. Paramyxovirus

 

 

**Answer: B. Coronavirus**

76. Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for cleaving and processing viral polyproteins into individual functional proteins during the replication of coronaviruses?

- A. Protease

- B. Polymerase

- C. Helicase

- D. Reverse transcriptase

 

 

**Answer: A. Protease**

77. Question: Which virus is responsible for causing German measles or rubella?

- A. Rubi virus

- B. Parvovirus

- C. Rubula virus

- D. Togavirus

 

**Answer: A. Rubi virus**

78. Question: What is the primary target of the measles virus in the human body?

- A. Liver cells

- B. Respiratory epithelial cells

- C. Immune system cells

- D. Nervous system cells

 

 

**Answer: B. Respiratory epithelial cells**

79. Question: Which viral family includes the viruses causing cold sores, genital herpes, and chickenpox?

- A. Herpesviridae

- B. Adenoviridae

- C. Togaviridae

- D. Picornaviridae

 

 

**Answer: A. Herpesviridae**

80. Question: What is the name of the viral enzyme responsible for copying RNA into DNA during reverse transcription in retroviruses?

- A. Reverse transcriptase

- B. RNA polymerase

- C. DNA ligase

- D. Helicase

 

 

**Answer: A. Reverse transcriptase**

Ø IMMUNOLOGY MCQS 100

 

1. Question: What is the primary function of antibodies in the immune system?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Cytokine production

C. Antigen presentation

D. Binding to antigens and neutralization

Answer: D. Binding to antigens and neutralization

 

2. Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to T cells in the immune system?

 

A. B cells

B. Macrophages

C. Neutrophils

D. Natural killer cells

Answer: B. Macrophages

 

3. Question: What is the primary role of T cells in the immune response?

 

A. Antibody production

B. Phagocytosis

C. Cell-mediated immunity

D. Complement activation

Answer: C. Cell-mediated immunity

 

4. Question: Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergic reactions and is found on the surface of mast cells and basophils?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgM

Answer: C. IgE

 

5. Question: What is the main function of cytotoxic T cells?

 

A. Antibody production

B. Phagocytosis

C. Killing infected cells

D. Cytokine release

Answer: C. Killing infected cells

 

6. Question: Which type of immunity is acquired through vaccination or exposure to an infectious agent?

 

A. Innate immunity

B. Passive immunity

C. Adaptive immunity

D. Natural immunity

Answer: C. Adaptive immunity

 

7. Question: What is the role of the thymus in the immune system?

 

A. Antibody production

B. Maturation of T cells

C. Maturation of B cells

D. Phagocytosis

Answer: B. Maturation of T cells

 

8. Question: Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies in the immune system?

 

A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Natural killer cells

D. Macrophages

Answer: B. B cells

 

9. Question: What is the process by which immune cells engulf and digest foreign particles or cells?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Exocytosis

C. Endocytosis

D. Pinocytosis

Answer: A. Phagocytosis

 

10. Question: Which type of immunity is provided by the transfer of antibodies from mother to infant through breast milk or placenta?

- A. Innate immunity

- B. Passive immunity

- C. Adaptive immunity

- D. Acquired immunity

 

 

**Answer: B. Passive immunity**

 

11. Question: What is the primary function of helper T cells in the immune system?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Killing infected cells

C. Coordinating immune responses

D. Producing antibodies

Answer: C. Coordinating immune responses

 

12. Question: Which molecule is responsible for antigen recognition by T cells?

 

A. Immunoglobulin

B. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

C. Complement

D. Cytokine

Answer: B. Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

 

13. Question: Which cell type is involved in the regulation of immune responses and the prevention of autoimmune reactions?

 

A. Helper T cells

B. Regulatory T cells

C. Cytotoxic T cells

D. Memory B cells

Answer: B. Regulatory T cells

 

14. Question: What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune system?

 

A. Antibody production

B. Phagocytosis

C. Killing infected cells

D. Antigen presentation

Answer: D. Antigen presentation

 

15. Question: Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant in blood and is the first to appear during an immune response?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgG

D. IgM

Answer: D. IgM

 

16. Question: What is the function of memory cells in the immune system?

 

A. Immediate response to infections

B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens

C. Phagocytosis of foreign particles

D. Activation of complement system

Answer: B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens

 

17. Question: Which type of immunity is conferred by the transfer of sensitized T cells from a donor to a recipient?

 

A. Passive immunity

B. Cell-mediated immunity

C. Adaptive immunity

D. Innate immunity

Answer: B. Cell-mediated immunity

 

18. Question: Which cells are responsible for releasing histamine and mediating immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

 

A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Mast cells

D. Macrophages

Answer: C. Mast cells

 

19. Question: What is the primary function of natural killer (NK) cells in the immune system?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Antibody production

C. Killing infected and cancerous cells

D. Antigen presentation

Answer: C. Killing infected and cancerous cells

 

20. Question: Which cell type is responsible for producing cytokines that modulate the activity of other immune cells?

 

A. B cells

B. T cells

C. Natural killer cells

D. Macrophages

Answer: B. T cells

 

21. Question: Which cytokine is involved in promoting inflammation and is often elevated during allergic reactions?

 

A. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)

B. Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)

D. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

Answer: B. Tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

 

22. Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies and complement proteins coat microorganisms, making them more susceptible to phagocytosis?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Complementation

C. Agglutination

D. Neutralization

Answer: A. Opsonization

 

23. Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE antibodies and mast cells, leading to immediate allergic responses?

 

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

Answer: A. Type I

 

24. Question: What is the primary function of the complement system in the immune response?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Cytolysis

C. Antibody production

D. T cell activation

Answer: B. Cytolysis

 

25. Question: Which cell type plays a crucial role in the surveillance for and destruction of virus-infected cells in a non-specific manner?

 

A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Natural killer (NK) cells

D. Macrophages

Answer: C. Natural killer (NK) cells

 

26. Question: What is the name of the process by which T cells and B cells undergo a maturation and selection process to ensure self-tolerance?

 

A. Clonal expansion

B. Positive selection

C. Negative selection

D. Somatic recombination

Answer: C. Negative selection

 

27. Question: Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in mucosal secretions, such as saliva and tears?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgG

Answer: A. IgA

 

28. Question: What is the function of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in the immune system?

 

A. Antibody production

B. Antigen presentation

C. Phagocytosis

D. Cytokine release

Answer: B. Antigen presentation

 

29. Question: Which type of T cell is responsible for suppressing immune responses to prevent autoimmunity?

 

A. Helper T cell

B. Cytotoxic T cell

C. Memory T cell

D. Regulatory T cell

Answer: D. Regulatory T cell

 

30. Question: What is the name of the process by which immune cells move toward a site of infection or injury guided by chemical signals?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Chemotaxis

C. Diapedesis

D. Apoptosis

Answer: B. Chemotaxis

 

31. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is the first to be produced during an immune response and is often associated with primary infections?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgM

D. IgG

Answer: C. IgM

 

32. Question: What is the function of the thymus in the context of T cell development?

 

A. Maturation of B cells

B. Production of antibodies

C. Maturation of T cells

D. Activation of complement system

Answer: C. Maturation of T cells

 

33. Question: Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for activating B cells and promoting antibody production?

 

A. Helper T cell

B. Cytotoxic T cell

C. Memory T cell

D. Regulatory T cell

Answer: A. Helper T cell

 

34. Question: What is the primary function of antibodies in the opsonization process?

 

A. Inhibition of viral replication

B. Neutralization of toxins

C. Facilitation of phagocytosis

D. Activation of complement

Answer: C. Facilitation of phagocytosis

 

35. Question: Which cell type is responsible for presenting antigens to B cells and initiating the antibody response?

 

A. Macrophages

B. Dendritic cells

C. T cells

D. Natural killer cells

Answer: B. Dendritic cells

 

36. Question: What is the role of memory B cells in the immune system?

 

A. Immediate response to infections

B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens

C. Phagocytosis of foreign particles

D. Activation of complement system

Answer: B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens

 

37. Question: Which cytokine is involved in the differentiation of T cells into cytotoxic T cells during the immune response?

 

A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)

D. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

Answer: A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

 

38. Question: What is the function of the spleen in the immune system?

 

A. Maturation of T cells

B. Production of antibodies

C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens

D. Activation of complement system

Answer: C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens

 

39. Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the formation of immune complexes that deposit in tissues and cause inflammation?

 

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

Answer: C. Type III

 

40. Question: What is the primary function of cytotoxic T cells in the immune response?

- A. Antibody production

- B. Phagocytosis

- C. Killing infected cells

- D. Cytokine release

 

**Answer: C. Killing infected cells**

 

41. Question: What is the term for the phenomenon where a small initial exposure to an antigen leads to a more robust immune response upon subsequent exposures?

 

A. Primary response

B. Tolerance

C. Memory response

D. Secondary response

Answer: D. Secondary response

 

42. Question: Which cells are responsible for producing antibodies with high specificity for a particular antigen?

 

A. Plasma cells

B. Memory B cells

C. Regulatory T cells

D. Helper T cells

Answer: A. Plasma cells

 

43. Question: Which class of antibodies can cross the placenta and provide passive immunity to the fetus?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgG

D. IgM

Answer: C. IgG

 

44. Question: What is the primary function of complement proteins in the immune system?

 

A. Antibody production

B. Phagocytosis

C. Opsonization

D. Cytolysis

Answer: D. Cytolysis

 

45. Question: Which cell type plays a central role in the rejection of transplanted organs and tissues?

 

A. Helper T cells

B. Regulatory T cells

C. Memory B cells

D. Cytotoxic T cells

Answer: D. Cytotoxic T cells

 

46. Question: What is the term for the ability of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self?

 

A. Immune tolerance

B. Autoimmunity

C. Immune surveillance

D. Immunodeficiency

Answer: A. Immune tolerance

 

47. Question: Which cytokine is primarily responsible for promoting inflammation and attracting immune cells to the site of infection or injury?

 

A. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)

B. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)

D. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

Answer: C. Interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma)

 

48. Question: What is the main function of the complement cascade in the immune response?

 

A. Activation of B cells

B. Cytolysis of pathogens

C. Phagocytosis

D. Antigen presentation

Answer: B. Cytolysis of pathogens

 

49. Question: Which cells are responsible for the production of antibodies with diverse specificities during an immune response?

 

A. Plasma cells

B. Memory T cells

C. Helper T cells

D. Regulatory T cells

Answer: A. Plasma cells

 

50. Question: What is the term for the ability of an antigen to stimulate an immune response?

 

A. Immunogenicity

B. Antigenicity

C. Tolerance

D. Specificity

Answer: A. Immunogenicity

  

 

51. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is found on the surface of B cells and serves as a receptor for antigen recognition?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgM

Answer: B. IgD

 

52. Question: What is the primary function of the spleen in the immune system?

 

A. Antibody production

B. T cell maturation

C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens

D. Cytokine release

Answer: C. Filtering and monitoring blood for pathogens

 

53. Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells during the immune response?

 

A. Helper T cells

B. Macrophages

C. Dendritic cells

D. B cells

Answer: C. Dendritic cells

 

54. Question: What is the role of toll-like receptors (TLRs) in the innate immune response?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Activation of complement

C. Antigen presentation

D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

Answer: D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

 

55. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is mainly involved in mucosal immunity and is present in tears, saliva, and breast milk?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgM

Answer: A. IgA

 

56. Question: What is the process by which immune cells undergo programmed cell death, contributing to the regulation of immune responses?

 

A. Apoptosis

B. Necrosis

C. Phagocytosis

D. Autophagy

Answer: A. Apoptosis

 

57. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is associated with allergic reactions and plays a role in defending against parasites?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgM

Answer: C. IgE

 

58. Question: What is the primary function of regulatory T cells in the immune system?

 

A. Activation of cytotoxic T cells

B. Suppression of immune responses to prevent autoimmunity

C. Production of antibodies

D. Phagocytosis

Answer: B. Suppression of immune responses to prevent autoimmunity

 

59. Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves delayed responses mediated by T cells, causing tissue damage?

 

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

Answer: D. Type IV

 

60. Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies and complement proteins coat pathogens, preventing their attachment to host cells?

- A. Opsonization

- B. Neutralization

- C. Agglutination

- D. Complementation

 

**Answer: B. Neutralization**

 

61. Question: What is the primary function of memory T cells in the immune system?

 

A. Immediate response to infections

B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens

C. Phagocytosis of foreign particles

D. Activation of complement system

Answer: B. Long-term protection against specific pathogens

 

62. Question: Which type of immunity is characterized by the transfer of antibodies from one individual to another, providing immediate but temporary protection?

 

A. Innate immunity

B. Passive immunity

C. Adaptive immunity

D. Active immunity

Answer: B. Passive immunity

 

63. Question: What is the primary function of interleukins in the immune system?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Antibody production

C. Communication between immune cells

D. Cytolysis

Answer: C. Communication between immune cells

 

64. Question: Which cell type is responsible for presenting antigens to CD4+ helper T cells during the immune response?

 

A. Macrophages

B. B cells

C. Dendritic cells

D. Natural killer cells

Answer: C. Dendritic cells

 

65. Question: What is the role of the complement system in inflammation?

 

A. Inhibition of inflammation

B. Phagocytosis

C. Cytolysis

D. Suppression of cytokine release

Answer: B. Phagocytosis

 

66. Question: Which type of cells produce antibodies with a high affinity for specific antigens during an immune response?

 

A. Plasma cells

B. Memory B cells

C. Regulatory T cells

D. Helper T cells

Answer: A. Plasma cells

 

67. Question: What is the term for the process by which T cells recognize antigens presented by major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?

 

A. Clonal expansion

B. Antigen presentation

C. Somatic recombination

D. T cell activation

Answer: D. T cell activation

 

68. Question: Which class of antibodies is involved in the neutralization of toxins produced by bacteria?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgG

D. IgM

Answer: C. IgG

 

69. Question: What is the role of macrophages in the immune system?

 

A. Antibody production

B. Phagocytosis

C. Activation of T cells

D. Mast cell degranulation

Answer: B. Phagocytosis

 

70. Question: Which cytokine is responsible for promoting the differentiation of B cells into plasma cells during the immune response?

- A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

- B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

- C. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)

- D. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

 

**Answer: B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)**

71. Question: What is the primary function of perforin in the immune response?

 

A. Inhibition of viral replication

B. Neutralization of toxins

C. Facilitation of phagocytosis

D. Induction of cytolysis in target cells

Answer: D. Induction of cytolysis in target cells

 

72. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is involved in the mucosal immune response and is found in high concentrations in saliva and respiratory secretions?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgG

Answer: A. IgA

 

73. Question: What is the term for the process by which immune cells move from the bloodstream into tissues in response to inflammatory signals?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Chemotaxis

C. Diapedesis

D. Apoptosis

Answer: C. Diapedesis

 

74. Question: Which type of T cell plays a role in suppressing immune responses and preventing excessive reactions?

 

A. Helper T cell

B. Cytotoxic T cell

C. Memory T cell

D. Regulatory T cell

Answer: D. Regulatory T cell

 

75. Question: What is the primary function of the complement component C3b in the immune system?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Neutralization

C. Cytolysis

D. Antibody production

Answer: A. Opsonization

 

76. Question: Which cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of antibodies?

 

A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Natural killer cells

D. Macrophages

Answer: B. B cells

 

77. Question: What is the role of the immunoglobulin IgD in the immune system?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Antigen presentation

C. Mast cell degranulation

D. Receptor on the surface of B cells

Answer: D. Receptor on the surface of B cells

 

78. Question: Which cytokine is involved in the differentiation of B cells into plasma cells during the immune response?

 

A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

C. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)

D. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

Answer: B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

 

79. Question: What is the main function of the natural killer (NK) cells in the immune system?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Antibody production

C. Killing infected and cancerous cells

D. Antigen presentation

Answer: C. Killing infected and cancerous cells

 

80. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is primarily responsible for providing passive immunity to newborns through breastfeeding?

- A. IgA

- B. IgD

- C. IgE

- D. IgG

 

**Answer: D. IgG**

 

81. Question: What is the primary function of the CD4 co-receptor on T cells?

 

A. Antigen recognition

B. Activation of cytotoxic T cells

C. Binding to MHC class I molecules

D. Interaction with MHC class II molecules

Answer: D. Interaction with MHC class II molecules

 

82. Question: Which type of immunity is provided by the transfer of sensitized T cells from a donor to a recipient?

 

A. Passive immunity

B. Cell-mediated immunity

C. Innate immunity

D. Adaptive immunity

Answer: B. Cell-mediated immunity

 

83. Question: What is the role of the complement component C5a in the immune response?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Chemotaxis

C. Cytolysis

D. Neutralization

Answer: B. Chemotaxis

 

84. Question: Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for directly killing infected host cells?

 

A. Helper T cell

B. Cytotoxic T cell

C. Regulatory T cell

D. Memory T cell

Answer: B. Cytotoxic T cell

 

85. Question: What is the function of antibodies in the process of agglutination?

 

A. Facilitation of phagocytosis

B. Neutralization of toxins

C. Binding to antigens and forming clumps

D. Activation of complement

Answer: C. Binding to antigens and forming clumps

 

86. Question: Which cells are responsible for presenting antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells during the immune response?

 

A. Helper T cells

B. Macrophages

C. Dendritic cells

D. B cells

Answer: C. Dendritic cells

 

87. Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies enhance the phagocytosis of microorganisms by immune cells?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Neutralization

C. Agglutination

D. Complementation

Answer: A. Opsonization

 

88. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant in the mucous membranes and provides localized defense against pathogens?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgM

Answer: A. IgA

 

89. Question: What is the primary function of Tumor Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) in the immune response?

 

A. Activation of B cells

B. Chemotaxis of immune cells

C. Cytolysis of pathogens

D. Suppression of inflammation

Answer: B. Chemotaxis of immune cells

 

90. Question: Which cell type is responsible for the secretion of antibodies in response to a secondary exposure to an antigen?

- A. Plasma cells

- B. Memory B cells

- C. Regulatory T cells

- D. Helper T cells

 

 

**Answer: A. Plasma cells**

 

91. Question: What is the main function of IgE antibodies in the immune response?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Neutralization of toxins

C. Induction of phagocytosis

D. Mediation of allergic reactions

Answer: D. Mediation of allergic reactions

 

92. Question: Which cell type is primarily responsible for presenting antigens to CD4+ helper T cells during the immune response?

 

A. Macrophages

B. B cells

C. Dendritic cells

D. Natural killer cells

Answer: A. Macrophages

 

93. Question: What is the term for the phenomenon where antibodies and antigens form insoluble complexes that precipitate out of solution?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Agglutination

C. Complementation

D. Neutralization

Answer: B. Agglutination

 

94. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is involved in the defense against parasitic infections and allergic responses?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgM

Answer: C. IgE

 

95. Question: What is the primary function of toll-like receptors (TLRs) in the innate immune response?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Activation of complement

C. Antigen presentation

D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

Answer: D. Recognition of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

 

96. Question: Which cytokine is involved in promoting the differentiation of B cells into memory B cells during the immune response?

 

A. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)

B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

C. Interleukin-10 (IL-10)

D. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha)

Answer: B. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)

 

97. Question: What is the term for the process by which antibodies prevent the attachment of pathogens to host cells?

 

A. Opsonization

B. Neutralization

C. Agglutination

D. Complementation

Answer: B. Neutralization

 

98. Question: Which immunoglobulin class is found on the surface of mast cells and basophils and is involved in allergic reactions?

 

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgM

Answer: C. IgE

 

99. Question: What is the primary function of the Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) in the immune system?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Antigen presentation

C. Complement activation

D. Cytokine release

Answer: B. Antigen presentation

 

100. Question: Which cell type is responsible for the production of antibodies with high specificity for a particular antigen during the secondary immune response?

- A. Plasma cells

- B. Memory B cells

- C. Regulatory T cells

- D. Helper T cells

 

**Answer: B. Memory B cells**

Ø CYTOLOGY 80 MCQS

 

1. Question: What is the primary function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in a cell?

 

A. Synthesis of ribosomal RNA

B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification

C. Protein synthesis

D. ATP production

Answer: C. Protein synthesis

 

2. Question: Which cellular organelle is responsible for the breakdown of cellular waste and damaged organelles?

 

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Lysosome

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Nucleus

Answer: B. Lysosome

 

3. Question: What is the main function of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?

 

A. ATP synthesis

B. Cellular respiration

C. Storage of genetic information

D. Protein synthesis

Answer: C. Storage of genetic information

 

4. Question: Which structure is responsible for the production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) in a cell?

 

A. Nucleolus

B. Mitochondria

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Golgi apparatus

Answer: A. Nucleolus

 

5. Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

 

A. G1 phase

B. S phase

C. G2 phase

D. M phase

Answer: B. S phase

 

6. Question: What is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell?

 

A. Synthesis of proteins

B. Energy production (ATP synthesis)

C. Modifying and packaging proteins

D. Lipid synthesis

Answer: B. Energy production (ATP synthesis)

 

7. Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for maintaining cell shape, providing structural support, and facilitating cell movement?

 

A. Microtubules

B. Microfilaments

C. Intermediate filaments

D. Centrioles

Answer: A. Microtubules

 

8. Question: What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a eukaryotic cell?

 

A. Protein synthesis

B. Lipid synthesis

C. Modification and packaging of proteins

D. Energy production

Answer: C. Modification and packaging of proteins

 

9. Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the separation of chromosomes during cell division?

 

A. Centriole

B. Lysosome

C. Nucleus

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: A. Centriole

 

10. Question: What is the function of the cell membrane (plasma membrane) in a cell?

- A. Control of substances entering and leaving the cell

- B. Synthesis of ATP

- C. Storage of genetic information

- D. Protein synthesis

 

makefile

Copy code

**Answer: A. Control of substances entering and leaving the cell**

 

11. Question: What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) in a cell?

 

A. Protein synthesis

B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification

C. Ribosomal RNA synthesis

D. ATP production

Answer: B. Lipid synthesis and detoxification

 

12. Question: Which cellular organelle is responsible for generating energy through cellular respiration?

 

A. Lysosome

B. Nucleus

C. Mitochondria

D. Golgi apparatus

Answer: C. Mitochondria

 

13. Question: What is the main function of peroxisomes in a eukaryotic cell?

 

A. Protein synthesis

B. Lipid synthesis

C. Detoxification and breakdown of fatty acids

D. Ribosomal RNA synthesis

Answer: C. Detoxification and breakdown of fatty acids

 

14. Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division (mitosis) occur?

 

A. G1 phase

B. S phase

C. G2 phase

D. M phase

Answer: D. M phase

 

15. Question: What is the function of the cytoskeleton in a cell?

 

A. Storage of genetic information

B. Synthesis of ATP

C. Structural support, cell shape, and movement

D. Modification and packaging of proteins

Answer: C. Structural support, cell shape, and movement

 

16. Question: Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of cellular proteins?

 

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Lysosome

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Nucleolus

Answer: C. Endoplasmic reticulum

 

17. Question: What is the role of centrosomes in cell division?

 

A. Synthesis of ribosomal RNA

B. Formation of microtubules and organization of spindle fibers

C. Lipid synthesis

D. Protein synthesis

Answer: B. Formation of microtubules and organization of spindle fibers

 

18. Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the transport of materials within the cell and between the cell and its environment?

 

A. Centriole

B. Nucleus

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Vesicles and the endomembrane system

Answer: D. Vesicles and the endomembrane system

 

19. Question: What is the function of the nuclear envelope in a eukaryotic cell?

 

A. Control of substances entering and leaving the cell

B. Synthesis of ATP

C. Separation of chromosomes during cell division

D. Enclosing and protecting the nucleus

Answer: D. Enclosing and protecting the nucleus

 

20. Question: What is the term for the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration?

- A. Osmosis

- B. Active transport

- C. Diffusion

- D. Facilitated diffusion

 

makefile

Copy code

**Answer: A. Osmosis**

 

21. Question: What is the primary function of the nucleolus in a cell?

 

A. Synthesis of ATP

B. Storage of genetic information

C. Production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

D. Detoxification

Answer: C. Production of ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

 

22. Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the synthesis and packaging of secretory vesicles?

 

A. Centriole

B. Nucleus

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: C. Golgi apparatus

 

23. Question: What is the term for the process by which cells engulf large particles or other cells by wrapping pseudopodia around them?

 

A. Phagocytosis

B. Pinocytosis

C. Exocytosis

D. Endocytosis

Answer: A. Phagocytosis

 

24. Question: Which organelle contains enzymes involved in the breakdown of cellular debris and foreign substances, acting as the "digestive system" of the cell?

 

A. Peroxisome

B. Lysosome

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Golgi apparatus

Answer: B. Lysosome

 

25. Question: In which phase of the cell cycle does the cell prepare for mitosis, and cellular organelles duplicate?

 

A. G1 phase

B. S phase

C. G2 phase

D. M phase

Answer: C. G2 phase

 

26. Question: What is the function of microfilaments in the cytoskeleton of a cell?

 

A. Structural support

B. Formation of cilia and flagella

C. Facilitating cell movement

D. Storage of genetic information

Answer: C. Facilitating cell movement

 

27. Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the synthesis of steroid hormones and detoxification of drugs and poisons?

 

A. Lysosome

B. Peroxisome

C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)

D. Nucleus

Answer: C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)

 

28. Question: What is the term for the semi-fluid substance that fills the interior of the cell and surrounds organelles?

 

A. Cytoskeleton

B. Cytosol

C. Cytoplasm

D. Nucleoplasm

Answer: C. Cytoplasm

 

29. Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the synthesis of ribosomal RNA and the assembly of ribosomes?

 

A. Nucleolus

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Mitochondria

Answer: A. Nucleolus

 

30. Question: What is the function of the nuclear pore complex in a eukaryotic cell?

- A. Facilitating the movement of ions across the nuclear envelope

- B. Regulating the passage of molecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm

- C. Synthesizing ribosomal RNA

- D. Detoxification processes

 

makefile

Copy code

**Answer: B. Regulating the passage of molecules between the nucleus and cytoplasm**

 

31. Question: What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?

 

A. Synthesis of lipids

B. ATP production

C. Protein synthesis

D. Detoxification

Answer: C. Protein synthesis

 

32. Question: Which cellular structure is responsible for the regulation of gene expression and the synthesis of RNA?

 

A. Nucleolus

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Nucleus

D. Golgi apparatus

Answer: C. Nucleus

 

33. Question: What is the primary function of the cytosol in a eukaryotic cell?

 

A. Energy production

B. Protein synthesis

C. Cellular respiration

D. Storage of genetic information

Answer: B. Protein synthesis

 

34. Question: In which organelle does cellular respiration occur, leading to the production of ATP?

 

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Lysosome

C. Mitochondria

D. Peroxisome

Answer: C. Mitochondria

 

35. Question: What is the term for the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, without the use of energy?

 

A. Osmosis

B. Active transport

C. Diffusion

D. Facilitated diffusion

Answer: C. Diffusion

 

36. Question: Which cellular structure is involved in the formation of spindle fibers during cell division?

 

A. Centriole

B. Nucleus

C. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Golgi apparatus

Answer: A. Centriole

 

37. Question: What is the role of the nuclear membrane in a eukaryotic cell?

 

A. Synthesis of ATP

B. Regulation of gene expression

C. Separation of chromosomes during cell division

D. Control of substances entering and leaving the nucleus

Answer: D. Control of substances entering and leaving the nucleus

 

38. Question: Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of phospholipids and steroids?

 

A. Nucleolus

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi apparatus

D. Peroxisome

Answer: B. Endoplasmic reticulum

 

39. Question: What is the function of microtubules in the cytoskeleton of a cell?

 

A. Structural support

B. Facilitating cell movement

C. Formation of cilia and flagella

D. Detoxification processes

Answer: A. Structural support

 

40. Question: What is the term for the process by which cells engulf small particles or fluids by forming vesicles?

- A. Phagocytosis

- B. Pinocytosis

- C. Exocytosis

- D. Endocytosis

 

**Answer: B. Pinocytosis**

 

PAP SMEAR MCQS

 

1. Question: What is the primary purpose of a Pap smear?

 

A. Detection of breast cancer

B. Detection of cervical cancer and precancerous changes

C. Diagnosis of ovarian cysts

D. Monitoring thyroid function

Answer: B. Detection of cervical cancer and precancerous changes

 

2. Question: At what age is it recommended for women to start getting regular Pap smears as part of cervical cancer screening?

 

A. 18 years

B. 25 years

C. 30 years

D. 40 years

Answer: B. 25 years

 

3. Question: What is the recommended frequency for Pap smears for women with normal results?

 

A. Every year

B. Every two years

C. Every three years

D. Every five years

Answer: C. Every three years

 

4. Question: What does the Pap test involve?

 

A. Blood test

B. Urine test

C. Collection of cells from the cervix for examination

D. Imaging study of the uterus

Answer: C. Collection of cells from the cervix for examination

 

5. Question: Which virus is a major cause of cervical cancer and is often detected in Pap smear results?

 

A. Influenza virus

B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

C. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

Answer: B. Human papillomavirus (HPV)

 

6. Question: What is the main goal of early detection through Pap smears in cervical cancer prevention?

 

A. Complete eradication of cancer cells

B. Identification of optimal treatment options

C. Detection and removal of precancerous lesions

D. Determination of cancer staging

Answer: C. Detection and removal of precancerous lesions

 

7. Question: How are abnormal Pap smear results classified?

 

A. Grade I

B. Grade II

C. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) and high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)

D. Stage 1, Stage 2, and Stage 3

Answer: C. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) and high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)

 

8. Question: What is the recommended follow-up for women with abnormal Pap smear results indicating high-grade changes?

 

A. Repeat Pap smear in one year

B. Colposcopy and biopsy

C. Immediate hysterectomy

D. Hormonal therapy

Answer: B. Colposcopy and biopsy

 

9. Question: How does the Pap smear contribute to the prevention of cervical cancer?

 

A. By directly treating precancerous lesions

B. By preventing the development of human papillomavirus (HPV)

C. By identifying and treating precancerous changes before they become cancerous

D. By removing the entire cervix

Answer: C. By identifying and treating precancerous changes before they become cancerous

 

10. Question: What is the significance of an "ASCUS" result on a Pap smear?

- A. Presence of normal cervical cells

- B. Indication of cancerous cells

- C. Uncertain or atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance

- D. Detection of hormonal imbalance

**Answer: C. Uncertain or atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance**

 

CERVICAL CANCER MCQ

1. Question: What is the primary cause of cervical cancer?

 

A. Smoking

B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection

C. Hormonal imbalance

D. Genetic factors

Answer: B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection

 

2. Question: Which type of HPV is most strongly associated with the development of cervical cancer?

 

A. HPV type 6

B. HPV type 11

C. High-risk HPV types, especially 16 and 18

D. Low-risk HPV types, especially 6 and 11

Answer: C. High-risk HPV types, especially 16 and 18

 

3. Question: What is the role of the HPV vaccine in cervical cancer prevention?

 

A. Treatment of existing HPV infections

B. Prevention of all HPV types

C. Prevention of high-risk HPV types, including 16 and 18

D. Cure for cervical cancer

Answer: C. Prevention of high-risk HPV types, including 16 and 18

 

4. Question: Which of the following is a known risk factor for the development of cervical cancer?

 

A. Early menopause

B. Hormone replacement therapy

C. Multiple sexual partners

D. Regular Pap smear screenings

Answer: C. Multiple sexual partners

 

5. Question: What is the purpose of a colposcopy in the evaluation of cervical abnormalities?

 

A. Removal of the cervix

B. Visualization and biopsy of the cervix

C. Hormone therapy

D. Pap smear collection

Answer: B. Visualization and biopsy of the cervix

 

6. Question: How does the FIGO (International Federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics) staging system classify the extent of cervical cancer?

 

A. Stage 0, Stage I, Stage II, Stage III, Stage IV

B. Grade I, Grade II, Grade III

C. Localized, Regional, Distant

D. Low-risk, Intermediate-risk, High-risk

Answer: A. Stage 0, Stage I, Stage II, Stage III, Stage IV

 

7. Question: What is the most common histological type of cervical cancer?

 

A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

C. Small cell carcinoma

D. Neuroendocrine carcinoma

Answer: B. Squamous cell carcinoma

 

8. Question: What is the recommended age for initiating cervical cancer screening with Pap smears in most guidelines?

 

A. 18 years

B. 25 years