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Immunology mcqs 
Choice Questions 400+
1. The most scientific method to identify which triggers may be causing my nasal allergies is to:
A. Track the time of year when my symptoms occur
B. Have an allergist perform a skin test
C. Have an allergist run a blood test
D. There is no good way to know whatt
P'm allergic to

Ans: B and/or C

2. Which is the most effective treatment for nasal allergies?
A. Over-the-counter antihistamines
B. Prescription antihistamines
C. Antihistamine decongestant
combination pills
D. Nasal corticosteroid sprays

Ans. D

      3. Which one of the following is least   likely to trigger asthma?
A. Strenuous exercise
B. A common cold
C. Reading the newspaper
D. Cat dander

Ans: C

4. Which of the following factors can pre-dispose you to having allergies?
A. A family history of allergies
B. Environmental Conditions
C. Number and type of Exposures
D. Emotional factors
E. All of the above
Ans: E
5. Hypersensitivity of which system of your body creates an allergic response?
A. Skin
B. Immune System
C. Circulatory Systemn
D. Pulmonary System
Ans:C

6. Which of the following treatments can be used to reduce allergic reactions to unavoidable substances?
A. Milk thistle three times daily
B. Mist inhalation therapy
C. Regularly wearing a face mask
D. Desensitization (Alergy shots)
Ans:D
7. Which of the following is the most
commonly prescribed treatment for hives?
A. Oral antihistamines
B. Oral corticosteroids such as prednisone
C. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
D. Aspirin
Ans:A

8. Which of the following does NOT
reduce or delay allergies in children?
A. Reducing dust-collecting items
B. Limiting exposure early in life to
indoor furry pets
C. Avoiding smoking in and around the
house
D. Exclusively wearing cotton clothes
allergies
Ans:D
9. Which of these body systems
causes allergic reactions?
A. Lymph
B. Immuune
C. Nervous
D. Autonomic
Ans:B

10. An allergen is anything that triggers an allergic or hypersensitive response.
Which of these could be an allergen?
A. Dust
B. Food
C. Nickel jewelry
D. All of the above
Ans:B
11. What does the body release to
combat allergens?
A. Plasma
B. Epinephrine
C. Histamine
D. Red Blood cells
Ans:C

12. The most severe form of allergic
reaction is called anaphylaxis. What
happens?
A. Blood pressure drops
B. Breathing becomes difficult
C. Runny nose develops
D.A and B
Ans:D
13. Which of these symptoms may
indicate a food allergy?
A. Skin rash
B. Runny nose
C. Diarrhea
D. Nausea
Ans: A

14. Which of these foods are most
likely to trigger an allergy?
A. Shellfish
B. Wheat
C. Celery
D. A and B
Ans: D
15. More Americans are developing
a sensitivity to the plant proteins in
latex materials or the chemical
additives used in manufacturing the
materials. Who's most at risk of
developing a latex allergy?
A. Patients who undergo numerous
medical procedures
B. Health care workers
C. Children
D. A and B
Ans: D
16. Pediatricians who treat children
with egg allergies are cautious about using certain vaccines because they may be grown in an egg medium. Which of these vaccines warrant caution?
A. MMR
B. Flu
C. Polio
D. A and B
Ans: D

17. Dust mites trigger indoor respiratory allergies. Where are you most likely to find them in the home?
A. Carpet
B. Beds
C. Drapes
D. All of the above
Ans: B

18. How long ago was asthma
identified as an ailment?
A. 1,000 years ago
B. 500 years ago
C. 100 years ago
D. 50 years ago
Ans: A
19. What are the symptoms of asthma?
A. Tightness in the chest
B. Wheezing
C. Sneezing
D. A and B
Ans: D

20. Which of these can trigger an
asthma attack?
A. Exercise
B. Aspirin
C. Laughing
D. All of the above
Ans: D
21. Which of these allergens are
most likely to induce asthma?
A. Ragweed
B. Cockroaches
C. Feathers
D. B and CC
Ans: D

22. Which of these foods should children with asthma avoid?
A. Dairy products
B. All nuts
C. Foods with preservatives
D. None of the above
Ans: D
23. Which of these, if eaten on a weekly basis, can help reduce chronic coughing and wheezing in asthmatic children?
A. Broccoli
B. Oranges
C. Apples
D. Fish
Ans: B

24.Which sports are best for asthmatics?
A. Baseball
B. Swimming
C. Sprinting
D. All of the above
Ans:D
25. What can you do to reduce exposure to outdoor asthma triggers?
A. Exercise outdoors on high ozone days
B. Schedule camping trips in May, June
or August through October
C. Pursue outdoor sports in cold weather
D. None of the above
Ans: D

26. Which of these alternative health treatments have reduced symptoms in children?
A. Nightly massages
B. Evening primrose herb
C. Yoga
D. Aromatherapy
Ans: A
27. What should you do if pet hair triggers your asthma?
A. Bathe the pet weekly
B. Keep the pet outside if possible
C. Own a dog, not a cat
D. All of the above
Ans: D

28. People who have atopic dermatitis also may have:
A. Asthma
B. Allergies
C. Acne
D. A andB
Ans: D
29. Which group of people is more
likely to develop atopic dermatitis?
A. Infants and young children
B. Teenagers
C. Adults 20 to 49
D. Older adults
Ans: A

30. One characteristic of atopic dermatitis is:
A. It affects the face more than the rest
of the body
B. It can leave pockmarks on the skin
C. It cycles through periods of flares
and remissions
D. It is worse in autumn
Ans: C
31. Atopic dermatitis is also often called:
A. Acne
B. Eczemna
C. Psoriasis
D. Pimples
Ans: B

32. In the past, doctors thought which of these caused atopic dermatitis?
A. Too much sun
B. An emotional disorder
C. Food allergies
D. Dust mite allergy
Ans: B
33. Which is a symptom of atopic
dermatitis?
A. Blisters on the palms of hands and
soles of feet
B. Itchy, inflamed skin
C. Scaly patches of skin on the scalp
D. Coin-shaped patches of irritated
skin on the arms and lower legs
Ans: B

34. Some people with atopic dermatitis develop:
A. Thick, leathery skin
B. Red, scaling skin
C. Small raised bumps on the skin
D. All of the above
Ans: D
35. The skin of a person with atopic
dermatitis is more susceptible to:
A. Skin infections
B. Warts
C. Herpes Simplex
D. All of the above
Ans: D

36. Match the immune deficiency in
Wiskott-Aldrich symdrome with the
appropriate lab test:
A. Quantitative immunoglobulins
B. CD11 by flow cytometry
C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,
Oxidated burst)
D. Platelet count and morphology
Ans: D
37. The skin of a person with atopic
dermatitis is more susceptible to:
A. Skin infections
B. Warts
C. Herpes simplex
D. All of the above
Ans: D

38. Match the immune deficiency in
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome with the
appropriate lab test:
A. Quantitative immunoglobulins
B. CD11 by flow cytometry
c. Serum calcium
E. Platelet count and morphology
Ans: E
39. Match the immune deficiency in
Di George anomaly with the appropriate lab test:
A. Quantitative immunoglobulins
B. CD11 by flow cytometry
C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,
Oxidated burst)
D. Serum calcium
Ans: D

40. Match the immune deficiency in Bruton's disease with the appropriate lab test:
A. Quantitative immunoglobulins
B. CD11 by flow cytometry
C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,
oxidated burst)
D. Serum calcium
Ans: A
41. Match the immune deficiency in
Leukocyte adhesion defect with the
appropriate lab test:
A. Quantitative immunoglobulins
B. CD11 by flow cytometry
C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,
oxidated burst)
D. Serum calcium
Ans: B

42. Match the immune deficiency in
Chronic Granulomatous disease
with the appropriate lab test:
A. Quantitative immunoglobulins
B. CD11 by flow cytometry
C. NBT test (nitroblue tetrazolium test,
Oxidated burst)
D. Serum calcium
Ans: C
43. State one from airborne substances listed below is Perennial allergen:
A. Dust mites
B. Sagebrush
C. Ragweed
D. Perfume
Ans: A

44. State one from airborne substances listed below is Non-IgE mediated irritant:
A. Dust mites
B. Cat dander
C. Ragweed
D. Sagebrush
E. Cigarette smoke
Ans: E
45. State one from airborne substances listed below is Seasonal allergen:
A. Dust mites
B. Cat dander
C. Ragweed
D. Perfume
Ans: C
46. In June, a 24-year-old female
presents with angioedema of the
face, including eyelids and lips. She
has had two previous similar
episodes. Her father has also had
recurrent angiodema of the face
and extremities. Neither has
associated pruritis with the
angioedema. Which diagnosis is
suggested?
A. Hereditary angioedema
B. Food allergy
C. Enterovirus infection
D. Idiopathic angioedema
E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by
her internist for hypertension
Ans: A
47. In June, a 24-year-old female
presents with angioedema of the
face, including eyelids and lips. She
has had two previous similar
episodes. She always has associated
gas and diarrhea with the
angioedema. She was previously
skin tested and found to have
sensitivities to milk, ragweed and
molds. Which diagnosis is
suggested?
A. Hereditary angioedema
B. Food allergy
C. Enterovirus infection
D. Idiopathic angioedema
E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by
her internist for hypertension
Ans:B
48. In June, a 24-year-old female
presents with angioedema of the
face, including eyelids and lips. She
has had two previous similar
episodes. This episode, like the
previous ones, occurred during the
summer and was accompanied by
diarrhea, low grade fever once and
classical urticarial lesions.
A. Hereditary angioedema
B. Food allergy
C. Enterovirus infection
D. Idiopathic angioedema
E. An ACE inhibitor was prescribed by
her internist for hypertension
Ans: D
49. Hereditary angioedema is:
A. Inherited as an autosomal recessive
disorder
B. Usually associated with urticaria
C.Usually responsive to
antihistamines
D. Can be managed with Danazol
(synthetic androgenic
Ans: D

50. Which of the following food
allergies is most likely outgrown?
A. Milk
B. Peanut
C. Walnuts
D. Shellfish
Ans: A
51. Indications for immunotherapy
for hymenoptera allergy:
A. Children and adults with a history
of a life-threatening reaction to a
hymenoptera sting
B. People ho have a history of a large
local skin reaction that gets worse
with each sting
C. Children with a history of
generalized urticaria after a sting
D. Anyone with a family history of an
allergic reaction to a hymenoptera
sting
Ans: A
52. Eczema in an infant most
commonly occurs in/on the:
A. Antecubitutal and Popliteal fossae
B. Perineal region
C. Scalp and flexural areas
D. Extensor surface of arm and legs
Ans: C

53. As part of the work up of adult
asthma, which of the following
reproducible, pre and post
bronchodilator pulmonary function
test results would be interpreted as
showing significant reversibility?
A. a 15% increase in FEF 25-75%
B. a 15% increase in FEV1 (425 ml
improvement)
C. a 20% increase in FEV1 (180 ml
improvement)
D. a 15% increase in FEV1/FVC ratio
Ans: B
54. All of the following medications
can affect late phase (including by
prophylaxis of the immediate
allergic response) response in
asthma except:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Leukotriene modifiers
C. Cromolyn sodium
D. Albuterol
Ans: D

55. Reasonable recommendations
for a patient with moderate
persistent asthma p0orly controlled
on low dose inhaled corticosteroids
include all except:
A. Add salmeterol inhaler BID
B. Double the dose of inhaled
corticosteroid
C. Add a leukotriene modifier
D. Add nebulized cromolyn BID
Ans: D
56. Which of the following is a clear
indication for penicillin allergy skin
testing:
A. A 40-year-old patient with a history
of anaphylaxis after ampicillin ten
years ago. The patient now has
endocarditis. Culture is positive for a
streptococcal organism sensitive only
to penicillin.
B. A 26-year-old patient with a history
of Steven-Johnson's Syndrome after
receiving amoxicillin.
C. A 65-year-old ICU patient receiving
penicillin and vancomycin with
flushing and hypotension.
D.A 39-year-old female who, eleven
days after taking penicillin for a strep
pharyngitis, develops angioedema,
arthralgias, urticaria and a low grade
fever.
Ans: A
57. The major advantage of second
generation antihistamines is:
A. They do cross the blood brain
barrier and help patients to relax
B. They are very long acting
C. They cause decongestion as well as
decreasing rhinorrhea
D. They minimally cross the blood
brain barrier and have a decreased
sedation effect
Ans: D

58. Which of the following types of
infection are increased in patients
with humoral or B-cell immune
deficiencies?
A. Sinusitis
B. Otitis media
C. Pneumonia
D. All of the above
Ans: D
59. The most common cause of
chronic urticaria, especially in
adults, is:
A. Food allergy
B. Connective tissue disease
D. Idiopathic
Ans: A

60. Congenital absence of the late
complement components (C5, C6,
C7, C8) is most often associated
with:
A. Viral infections
B. Recurrent Neisserial infections
C. Lupus-like disease
D. Candidiasis
Ans: B
61. Congenital comnplement
deficiencies are best screened by
which of the following laboratory
tests:
A. Quantitative immunoglobulins
B. NBT
C. Total CH50
D. C3, C4 and properdin
Ans: C

62. All of the following except one
can be useful in managing atopic
dermatitis:
A. Skin lubrication/moisturization
B. Controlling pruitus to reduce
scratching
C. Immunotherapy (allergy injections)
D. Avoiding specific food allergy
triggers
Ans: C
63. All of the following regarding
aspirin intolerance are true except:
A. Patients with asthma are at no
greater risk for aspirin intolerance
than the general population
B. A proposed mechanism of aspirin
intolerance involves aspirin's effect on
arachidonic acid metabolism
C. There is cross reactivity between
aspirin and NSAID intolerance
Ans: A

64. Which of the following tests
would be most useful in helping to
diagnose asthma:
A. Diffusing capacity
B. Pre and post bronchodilator FEV1
D. Pulmonary funetions pre- and post-
methacholine challenge
E. B and D
Ans: E
65. Conditions which may worsen asthma include (Identify the one
incorrect choice):
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Sinusitis
C. Pregnancy
D. Cardiac disease
Ans: A

66. Which of the following is the
most common underlying cause of
asthma
(Choose the one best answer)
A. Beta Blocker sensitivity
B. Aspirin sensitivity
C. Bronchitis
E. Inhalant allergies
Ans: E
67. Inhaled corticosteroids (Choose
the one incorrect answer):
A. Can be useful in patients who have
persistent asthma
B. Can be useful in patients who
require rescue inhaler 1-2 times per
week
C. Can be used in 6-12 year-old
children with asthma
D. Acutely increase peak flow rate, a
measure of large airway function
Ans: D
68. A 40-year-old male presents to
the Emergency Room complaining
of hives, wheezing and difficulty
breathing following an insect sting.
Pulse is 120 beats/min. BP is 100/56.
Immediate therapy should include
which one of the following:
A. Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV
B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
C. Epinephrine 0.3 ml (1:1000 aqueous)
sub Q or IM
D. Cholorpheniramine 8 mg orally
Ans: C
69. A 40-year-old male presents to
the Emergency Room complaining
of hives, wheezing and difñculty
breathing following an insect sting
Pulse is 120 beats/min. BP is 100/56.
After Epinephrine is administered
and quick assessment of the patient
is done, you determine that the
patient is moving air adequately
and is not in shock. The next
medication to give the patient
immediately is:
A. Diphenhydramine 50 mg IV
B. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
C. Epinephrine 0.3 ml (1:1000 aqueous)
sub Q or IM
D. Cholorpheniramine 8 mg orally
Ans: B
70. Which of the following
symptoms is least common in
patients with sinusitis?
A. Nasal congestion
B. Cough
C. Fever
D. "Post-nasal" drip
Ans: B

71. Which of the following would
not suggest a FISH (Fluorescence In
Situ Hybridization) test to identify
DiGeorge syndrome?
A. Recurrent otitis media in a 3-year-
old
B. Neonatal tetany
C. Pervasive developmental delay in a
6-year-old female
D. Recurrent/persistent otitis and
diarrhea in a 6-month-old
Ans: C
72. Hereditary angioedema (C1
inhibitor deficiency) is
characterized by all of the following
except:
A. Frequent abdominal pain
B. Urticaria or hives
C. Low C4 levels during and between
attacks
D. Family history of swelling
Ans: B

73. Common causes of acute
urticaria include all of the following
except:
A. Food allergy
C.Viral infection
D. Inhalant allergy
Ans: D
74. The two most common
superinfections in atopic dermatitis
are due to:
A. Staph aureus and Herpes simplex
B. Staph epidermidis and cutaneous
viral infections
C. Staph aureus and Candida
D. Staph epidermidis and Candida
Ans: A

75. The most common cause of
contact dermatitis in general is:
A. Latex
B. Poison ivy, poison oak and poison
sumac
C. Nickel
D. Dark-colored pigments in shoes and
clothing
Ans: B
76. The one true statement about
anaphylaxis is
A. There are always skin findings
rash, angioedema, etc.
B. People with recurrent anaphylaxis
with no identifiable cause (idiopathic)
are the most likely to carry adrenalin
C. After adrenalin, the most important
medication to administer immediately
is steroids
D. After adrenalin, the most important
medication to administer promptly is
an H2 blocker
Ans: C
77. Complement activation is a part
of which type of hypersensitivity
reaction?
A. Type I
B. Type II and Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type III and IV
Ans: B

78. After playing in the bushes
during a camping trip, a 7-year-old
girl complains of intense itching &
blistering of the hands, arms, &
legs. What is the most likely
condition& what type of
hypersensitivity reaction is she
displaying?
A. Hives; Type I reaction
B. Hives; Type IV reaction
C. Contact Dermatitis; Type IV reaction
D. Contact Dermatitis; Type I reaci
Ans: C
79. Megakaryocytes are minimally
immunoresponsive. What type of
cell do megakaryocytes give rise to?
A. RBC
B. Platelets
C. Leukocytes
D. Monocytes
Ans: B

80. A latent, measles-like viral
infection &, presumably, a defect in
cellular immunity is associated with
which of the following diseases?
A. Hereditary angioedema
B. Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)
C. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
(SSPE)
D. DiGeorge syndrome
Ans: C

81. In HIV infection, reverse transcription describes which of the following?
A. Converting viral DNA into RNA
B. Converting viral RNA into DNA
C. Converting proteins into viral RNA
D. Both A and B
Ans: B
82. Which of these produces and secretes antibodies in the body?
A. Bacteria
B. Plasma Cell
C. Red blood cell
D. Virus
Ans: B
83. What host cell membrane structures enable the attachment of a virus like human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A. Ion channels
B. Nuclear pores
C. Ribosomes
D. Receptors
Ans: D
84. Name the process a cell such as a
neutrophil or a macrophage uses to
ingest (eat) its prey.
A. Halitosis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Botulism
D. Phagocytosis
Ans: D
85. What is an important
mechanism white blood cells use to
kill bacteria, fungi and other
invading pathogens?
A. Asphyxiation
B. Oxidative activity
C. Fright
D. Drowning
Ans: B
86. What is the term applied to
white blood cells squeezing between
endothelial cells lining the blood
vessel to reach the site of an
infection?
A. Diapedesis
B. Chemotaxis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Enucleation
Ans: A

87. What's a specific term for a
bacterial or other foreign protein
that initiates antibody production
by the body?
A. Peptide
B. MHC II molecule
C. Complement
D. Antigen
Ans: D
88. What product of the immune
system attaches to bacteria, making
them easier to eat by white blood
cells?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Antibody
C. Antigen
D. Both A and B
Ans: B
89.What HIV protein helps insert
the HIV provirus into the hosts
DNA?
A. Transcriptase
B. Integrase
C. Protease
D. Dismutase
Ans: B
90. What main characteristic of
HIV makes the virus difficult to
treat with a single ?
A.
B. Impenetrable capsule
C. Its ability to mutate
D. Its environmental durability
Ans: C
91. Name the subgroups of B:
A. Bx type
C. A and B
B. Bmtype
D. None
Ans: C

93. The expression of A and B genes appears to be dependent on another gene called:
A. Hgene
C. Ngene
B. Mgene
D. E gene
Ans: A

94. Anti-H very rarely occurs as cold reactive agglutinin in individuals with very low levels of:
A. Hantigens on their cells
B. M antigens on their cells
C. A and B
D.All
Ans: A
95. The development of monoclonal antibodies obtained from cultures of cells secreting antibodies called:
A.          Hybridomas
B.           B. Antibiomas
D. Plasmacytomas
   C. Sarcomas
Ans: A
96. Blood grouping sera should meet the following requirements:
A. It should have titre of recommended potency
B. It should be free of cold agglutinins
C. It should be free of so-called irregular agglutinins
D. It should not form rouleaux when mixed with red cells
E. lt should be clear, of normal colour and free of cells or any other particles, not hemolysed, icteric or chylous and tree of complement
F. All of the above

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www.medicaltubers.blogspot.com

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