Part -1 200 Mcqs and Part -2 200 Mcqs
001. Guardian of shoulder joint is
(A) Sub acromial bursa (B) Glenoidal labrum
(C) Rotator cuff (D) Coraco – humeral ligament
002. The largest branch of coeliac axis in fetal and early postnatal life is
(A) Left gastric artery (B) Hepatic artery
(C) Right gastric artery (D) Splenic artery
003. The largest division of thalamus is
(A) Lateral thalamic nuclei (B) Anterior thalamic nuclei
(C) Medial thalamic nuclei (D) Ventral posterior nuclei
004. Superior cerebellar artery is the branch of
(A) Posterior cerebral artery (B) Vertebral artery
(C) Basilar artery (D) Posterior spinal artery
005. Functional areas of cerebral cortex not connected by corpus callosum is
(A) Primary visual area (B) Primary auditory area
(C) Premotor area (D) Pre-frontal area
006. The right bundle branch of AV bundle derives blood supply from
(A) The right coronary artery (B) The left coronary artery
(C) Both the coronary arteries (D) Any one of the coronary arteries (Variably)
007. The pudendal nerve divides into it’s terminal branches in the
(A) Pudendal canal (B) Ischiorectal fossa
(C) Gluteal region (D) Pelvis
008. Conducting tissue of the heart is the modification of
(A) Epicardium (B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium (D) Nerve fibers
009. Which paranasal sinus is called as Bullar sinuses?
(A) Anterior ethmoidal air cells (B) Middle ethmoidal air cells
(C) Posterior ethmoidal air cells (D) Maxillary sinus
010. Uncinate process of pancreas is anteriorly related to
(A) Superior mesenteric vessels (B) Inferior mesenteric vessels
(C) Abdominal aorta (D) Portal vein
011. Ciliary epithelium is
(A) Trilaminar
(B) Unilaminar
(C) Bilaminar
(D) Basal lamina continuous with external limiting membrane of retina
012. Navicular fossa is found in
(A) Preprostatic urethra (B) Prostatic urethra
(C) Bulbar urethra (D) Penile urethra
013. What is true about meningeal arteries?
(A) They are all branches of maxillary artery.
(B) They all supply all three layers of meninges
(C) They do not supply lepto meninges
(D) Though they supply endocranium, they do not supply diploe.
014. Segmental innervation of quadriceps femoris muscle
(A) L2, L3, L4 (B) L4, L5
(C) L4, L5, S1, S2 (D) L5, S1
015. The circle of Willis
(A) Equalizes pressure of blood flow to both sides of brain.
(B) Has the middle cerebral artery in it’s lateral part.
(C) Is an arterio venous circle in interpeduncular fossa
(D) Has no role to play in collateral circulation.
016. The relation of uterine artery and ureter is remembered as
(A)Blood under the bridge (B) Lymph under the bridge
(C) Water under the bridge (D) Urine under the bridge
017. One of the extrinsic shoulder muscle is
(A) Levator scapulae (B) Deltoid
(C) Pectoralis major (D) Supraspinatus
018 Gluteus medius muscle is supplied by :-
(A) Obturator artery (B) Ilio-inguinal artery
(C) Superior gluteal artery (D) Inferior gluteal artery
019. All of following statements of adrenal gland are true except:-
(A) Both are supplied by 3 arteries
(B) Both adrenal glands drain directly into inferior vena cava
(C) Right gland is pyramidal in shape
(D) Average weight is about 5 gms
020. Intervertebral disc is an example for
(A) hyaline cartilage (B) sponge bone
(C) elastic cartilage (D) fibro cartilage
021. Platelet factor 4 is contained in _______ of platelets
(A) Dense bodies (B) Lysosomes
(C) Alpha granules (D) Peroxisomes
022. Normal Interstitial fluid Hydrostatic pressure is
(A) 3 mm Hg (B) – 3 mm Hg
(C) 6 mm Hg (D) – 6 mm Hg
023. The normal intrapleural pressure at the beginning of inspiration is
(A) 5 mm Hg (B) 1 mm Hg
(C) – 2.5 mm Hg (D) – 6 mm Hg
024. The solubility of CO2 in blood is _______ times that of Oxygen
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 20 (D) 100
025. Transfer of which of the following gas across the alveolo capillary membrane is diffusion limited
(A) Nitrous Oxide (B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Carbon Dioxide (D) Oxygen
026. Synthetic Dexamethasone is _______ as potent as Cortisol
(A) 2 times (B) 50 times
(C) 10 times (D) 30 times
027. Testosterone is formed by
(A) Interstitial cells of Leydig (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Fibroblast (D) Germinal epithelium
028. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH in pulses lasting for
(A) 5 – 25 minutes (B) 40 – 60 minutes
(C) 60 – 90 minutes (D) 2 – 4 minutes
029. The first meiotic division of the Oocyte occurs
(A) During early embryonic period (B) Fifth month of fetal development
(C) After puberty (D) Before pregnancy
030. Augmented limb leads, compared to the non-augmented leads, increase the size of the potentials by
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 100%
031. The total surface area of capillary bed of entire body is
(A) 500 – 700 m2 (B) 100 m2
(C) 250 – 400 m2 (D) 1000 m2
032. In peristalsis neurotransmitters producing relaxation ahead of the stimulus are
(A) Ach and substance P (B) VIP and NO
(C) Serotonin and dopamine (D) CGRP and adenosine
033. Most potent endogenous vasopressor is
(A) Angiotensin II (B) Renin
(C) Nor epinephrine (D) Epinephrine
034. What % of total body potassium is contained in the body cells?
(A) 50% (B) 38%
(C) 78% (D) 98%
035. The only output cells from the cerebellar cortex are the axons of
(A) Granule cells (B) Stellate cells
(C) Purkinje cells (D) Golgi cells
036. Carotid body baroreceptor is mosr sensitive to:-
(A) Mean arterial pressure (B) Diastolic blood pressure
(C) Systolic blood pressure (D) Pulse pressure
037. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on:
(A) Lean body mass (B) Adipose tissue
(C) Resting heart rate (D) Exercise
038. Increase in intracranial pressure is not associated with:
(A) Deterioration of consciousness (B) Tachycardia
(C) Respiratory depression (D) Increase in BP
039. Filtration pressure in glomeruli of kidney is:
(A) 10 mm of Hg (B) 6 mm of Hg
(C) 15 mm of Hg (D) 20 mm of Hg
040. Erythropoiesis is promoted by al the following except:
(A) ACTH (B) Thyroxin
(C) Oestrogen (D) Prolactin
041. On oxidation, glucose will give rise to all the following, except:
(A) glucuronic acid (B) gluconic acid
(C) glucosaccharic acid (D) glycoside
042. Hydrolysis of fat by alkali is called:
(A) Esterification (B) Inositol
(C) Mannitol (D) Choline
043. Glucose is absorbed by gastrointestinal cells by:
(A) Passive diffusion
(B) Carrier mediated co-transport system, along with sodium
(C) Carrier mediated antiport system , along with potassium
(D) Needs no ATP
044. Creatinine is synthesized from the following amino acids, except:
(A) Arginine (B) aspartic acid
(C) Glycine (D) Methionine
045. When pH falls by 1 unit , the hydrogen ion concentration :
(A) Decreases 10 times (B) Increases two fold
(C) Changes by 7 times (D) Increases 10 times
046. Nyctalopia is due to the deficiency of :
(A) vitamine K (B) vitamine E
(C) vitamine B12 (D) Vitamine A
047. Which one of following statements about the fed and fasting metabolic states is correct?
(A) Fatty acids and triacylglycerol are synthesized in the liver in the fasting state.
(B) In the fasting state the main fuel for the central nervous system is fatty acids released from
adipose tissue.
(C) In the fasting state the main metabolic fuel for most tissues comes from fatty acids released
from adipose tissue.
(D) In the fed state muscle cannot take up glucose for use as a metabolic fuel because glucose
transport in muscle is stimulated in response to glucagon.
048. All are true with regard to fructose intolerance, except:
(A) Defective enzyme is aldolase-B (B) Fructose-1-phosphate accumulates
(C) Glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited (D) Urine is positive for Rothera’s test
049. The key enzyme in the pathway of cholesterol biosynthesis is:
(A) HMG-CoA synthase (B) HMG-CoA lyase
(C) HMG-CoA reductase (D) Mevalonate kinase
050. Glutathione does all of the following except
(A) Participate in the transport of amino acids across some cell membranes.
(B) Acts as a cofactor for some enzymes.
(C) Form conjugates with some drugs to increase water solubility.
(D) Decreases the stability of erythrocyte membranes
051. Opalescent urine is seen in?
(A) Porphyria (B) Alkaptonuria
(C) Chyluria (D) Creatinuria
052. Which of the following compounds have a clearance value higher than GFR?
(A) Uric acid (B) Diodrast
(C) Urea (D) Inulin
053. Which of the following will have the lowest glycemic index?
(A) Baked apple (B) Baked potato
(C) Potato chips (D) Uncooked potato
054. Low levels of the following PUFA in the body causes the disease retinitis pigmentosa
(A) eicosatetraenoate (B) eicosapentaenoate
(C) docosahexaenoate (D) eicosatrienoate
055. Deficiency of LPL and apo C-II causes
(A) type I hyperlipidemia (B) type III hyperlipidemia
(C) type V hyperlipidemia (D) Tangier disease
056. One of the complications of tissue repair is
(A) Keloid (B) Ulcer
(C) Abscess (D) Wound contraction
057. Microalbuminuria is the persistent elevation of urinary albumin excretion in an early morning
urine sample
(A) 20-200 mg /L (B) 30-300 mg/L
(C) 10-100 mg/L (D) 40-400 mg/L
058. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is decreased in
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Rheumatic fever
(C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
059. Prolonged Prothrombin time is seen in the following conditions except
(A) Liver disease (B) Obstructive jaundice
(C) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (D) Patient on aspirin therapy
060. Heinz bodies are seen in
(A) Aplastic anemia (B) Hereditary spherocytosis
(C) G-6-PD deficiency (D) Iron deficiency anemia
061. Pleural effusion due to cardiac failure is an example of
(A) Serous inflammation (B) Fibrinous inflammation
(C) Purulent inflammation (D) Granulomatous inflammation
062. The following are examples of disease with granulomatous inflammation except
(A) Leprosy (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Actinomycosis (D) Sarcoidosis
050. Glutathione does all of the following except
(A) Participate in the transport of amino acids across some cell membranes.
(B) Acts as a cofactor for some enzymes.
(C) Form conjugates with some drugs to increase water solubility.
(D) Decreases the stability of erythrocyte membranes
051. Opalescent urine is seen in?
(A) Porphyria (B) Alkaptonuria
(C) Chyluria (D) Creatinuria
052. Which of the following compounds have a clearance value higher than GFR?
(A) Uric acid (B) Diodrast
(C) Urea (D) Inulin
053. Which of the following will have the lowest glycemic index?
(A) Baked apple (B) Baked potato
(C) Potato chips (D) Uncooked potato
054. Low levels of the following PUFA in the body causes the disease retinitis pigmentosa
(A) eicosatetraenoate (B) eicosapentaenoate
(C) docosahexaenoate (D) eicosatrienoate
055. Deficiency of LPL and apo C-II causes
(A) type I hyperlipidemia (B) type III hyperlipidemia
(C) type V hyperlipidemia (D) Tangier disease
056. One of the complications of tissue repair is
(A) Keloid (B) Ulcer
(C) Abscess (D) Wound contraction
057. Microalbuminuria is the persistent elevation of urinary albumin excretion in an early morning
urine sample
(A) 20-200 mg /L (B) 30-300 mg/L
(C) 10-100 mg/L (D) 40-400 mg/L
058. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is decreased in
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Rheumatic fever
(C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
059. Prolonged Prothrombin time is seen in the following conditions except
(A) Liver disease (B) Obstructive jaundice
(C) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (D) Patient on aspirin therapy
060. Heinz bodies are seen in
(A) Aplastic anemia (B) Hereditary spherocytosis
(C) G-6-PD deficiency (D) Iron deficiency anemia
061. Pleural effusion due to cardiac failure is an example of
(A) Serous inflammation (B) Fibrinous inflammation
(C) Purulent inflammation (D) Granulomatous inflammation
062. The following are examples of disease with granulomatous inflammation except
(A) Leprosy (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Actinomycosis (D) Sarcoidosis
077. Contact dermatitis comes under which type of hypersensitivity
(A) Type I (B) Type II
(C) Type III (D) Type IV
078. The most commonly used sterilisation condition for an autoclave is
(A) 138°C for 15 mins at 15lbs/psi (B) 121°C for 15 mins at 15lbs/psi
(C) 121°C for 15 mins at 18lbs/psi (D) 138°C for 15 mins at 18lbs/psi
079. The high temperature dry oxidation process that reduces organic and combustible waste into
non-organic incombustible manner is
(A) Incineration (B) Inertization
(C) Microwaving (D) Plasma pyrolysis
080. The urinary catheters after use are to be disposed into the following colour coded bin
(A) Red (B) White
(C) Yellow (D) Blue
081. Epitope is seen in
(A) Antigen (B) Antibody
(C) Complement (D) Platelets
082. Sporicidal agents are all except
(A) Ethylene Oxide (B) Formaldehyde
(C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Hydrogen peroxide
083. Robertson’s cooked meat medium is used for
(A) Culture of aerobic bacteria (B) Culture of anaerobes
(C) Fungal culture (D) Culture of parasites
084. Disinfectant used for sterilization of endoscopes
(A) 2% Glutaraldehyde (B) 5% Glutaraldehyde
(C) 10% Formaldehyde (D) 5% Formaldehyde
085. Bacteria which survives Holder method of pasteurization
(A) Mycobacteria (B) Brucella
(C) Salmonella (D) Coxiella
086. Multiple ring forms in a red blood cell are seen in
(A) Plasmodium ovale (B) Plasmodium vivax
(C) Plasmodium malariae (D) Plasmodium falcipararum
087. Entamoeba trophozoites are present in the lumen of
(A) Duodenum (B) Ileum
(C) Large intestine (D) Jejunum
088. Plasmodium malariae is the most important cause of transfusion malaria because
(A) Level of parasitemia is very high
(B) Merozoites remain in blood for very long period
(C) It is the most common form in tropics
(D) Spleen is infected
089. In pulmonary amoebiasis sputum examination will show
(A) Amoebic trophozoites (B) Amoebic cyst
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
090. The risk of vertical transmission of Hepatitis B virus is high if the mother is positive to
(A) Hbe Ag (B) HBs Ag
(C) Low levels of Anti HBs (D) Low levels of Anti Hbe
091. In mycobacterium tuberculosis culture negative report is given if no growth occurs after
(A) 8 weeks of incubation (B) 6 weeks of incubation
(C) 2-4 weeks of incubation (D) 1-2 weeks of incubation
092. Almost all tissues in human body can be affected by trophozoites of
(A) Amoebiasis (B) Filariasis
(C) Malaria (D) Leishmaniasis
093. All are non bile stained eggs except
(A) Eggs of Ascarisl umbricoides (B) Eggs of Ancylostoma duodenale
(C) Eggs of Enterobius vermicularis (D) Eggs of Hymenolepsis nana
094. Mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica contains how many nuclei
(A) 4 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 8
095. Common name for Ancylostoma duodenale
(A) Round worm (B) Hook worm
(C) Whip worm (D) Pin worm
096. Cephalic index determination is important for deducting
(A) Height (B) Sex
(C) Race (D) Cranial volume
097. Lucid interval is characteristic of
(A) Epidural bleed (B) Subdural bleed
(C) Subarachnoid bleed (D) Intracerebral bleed
098. The first earliest visible sign of decomposition is
(A) Distension of abdomen (B) Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa
(C) Marbling (D) Postmortem peeling of skin
099. In dry drowning death is due to
(A) Water logging of lungs (B) Spasm of larynx
(C) Cardiac inhibition (D) Ventricular fibrillation
100. What is lynching?
(A) Beating to death (B) Stoning to death
(C) Homicidal hanging (D) Suicidal attempt
101. Pugilistic attitude in burns is due to.
(A) Rigor mortis (B) Adipocere
(C) Coagulation of muscle proteins (D) Cadaveric spasm
102. The time limit for exhumation in India is
(A) 2 years (B) 5 years
(C) 7 years (D) No time limit
103. The length of the stab wound usually corresponds to
(A) Thickness of blade (B) Length of blade
(C) Width of blade (D) Force of impact
104. Preauricular sulcus is used for
(A) Determination of sex (B) Determination of age
(C) Determination of race (D) None of the above
105. In suspected air embolism the body cavity to be opened first is
(A) Head (B) Thorax
(C) Abdomen (D) Pelvis
106. Greenish discoloration of bruise is due to
(A) Haemoglobin (B) Haemosiderin
(C) Haematoidin (D) Bilirubin
107. Paraffin test is the test
(A) to find out gunpowder residue
(B) to differentiate saltwater and freshwater drowning
(C) to detect blood stain
(D) to detect seminal stain
108. Le facie sympathique indicates
(A) Antemortem hanging (B) Postmortem hanging
(C) Strangulation (D) Pseudo strangulation
109. Crocodile skin burns is seen in
(A) Thermal burns (B) Electrical burns
(C) Lightning burns (D) Bomb blast
110. For histopathological examination, visceral organs are preserved in
(A) 10% formalin (B) 20% formalin
(C) 30% formalin (D) 40% formalin
111. Dowry death is death within how many years of marriage
(A) 2 years (B) 5 years
(C) 7 years (D) 9 years
112. Which of the following organs is enlarged in starvation
(A) Liver (B) Gall bladder
(C) Spleen (D) Heart
113. How much constricting pressure is necessary to occlude jugular venous system to cause death in
hanging?
(A) 2 kg (B) 5 kg
(C) 15 kg (D) 30 kg
114. Rigor mortis is caused by
(A) Depletion of ATP (B) Coagulation of protein in muscles
(C) Gas formation (D) Solidification of fat
115. Which one of the following s a postmortem finding of antemortem burns
(A) Singeing of hair (B) Blackening of skin
(C) Blister formation (D) Carbon particles in trache
116. The cause of anemia in chronic kidney disease is
(A) Toxic effect of uremia on marrow precursor cells
(B) Deficiency of erythropoietin
(C) Iron deficiency anemia
(D) All of the above
117. The most common variety of psoriasis is called
(A) Plaque type (B) Guttate type
(C) Pustular type (D) None of the above
118. Patients benefited from a trial of NIV
(A) Respiratory acidosis (B) Respiratory alkalosis
(C) MI (D) Metabolic acidosis
119. Which among the following most common cause bilateral effusion?
(A) Pneumonia (B) TB
(C) Cardiac failure (D) Sub diaphragmatic disorders
120. The most common type of renal stone is
(A) Uric acid (B) Calcium phosphate
(C) Magnesium ammonium phosphate (D) Calcium oxalate
121. Which pneumonia occurs in local outbreaks in contaminated cooling towers in hotels hospitals
and industries
(A) Klebsiella (B) Staphylococcus
(C) Legionella (D) Mycoplasma
122. Drug induced hirsutism is cause by all except
(A) Phenytoin (B) Minoxodil
(C) Cyclosporine (D) Carbomezipine
123. Which of the following may be a direct consequence of severe magnesium deficiency
(A) Hypophosphatemia (B) Hypercalcemia
(C) Hypokalemia (D) Hyponatremia
124. XDR TB is defined as resistance to
(A) INH + Rifampicin
(B) INH + Rifampicin + Quinolones
(C) INH + Rifampicin + Quinolones + injectable second line drugs
(D) Quinolones alone
125. Which of the following porphyria syndrome was based on diagnosis of positive urine
porphobilinogen?
(A) Intermittent acute porphyria (B) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
(C) Protoporphyria (D) Porphyria cutanea tarda
126. Late onset Hemorrhagic cystitis in BMT due to
(A) BKV (polyoma virus) (B) CMV
(C) Mycoplasma (D) C. Difficle
127. Pulsus alterans is classically seen in cases of
(A) Severe left ventricular dysfunction (B) Pericarditis
(C) Severe aortic regurgitation (D) Tension pneunothor
128. Which of the following drugs are used for treatment of obesity?
(A) Locaserin (B) Liraglutide
(C) Linagliptin (D) Naltrexone
129. Schober test is done for
(A) Psoriasis (B) JRA
(C) Reiter’s disease (D) Ankylosing spondylitis
130. Which single culture positivity diagnostic for infective endocarditis?
(A) Coxiella burnetii (B) Kingella kingae
(C) Echinella (D) Streptococcus
131. Drug of choice for management of aortic dissection?
(A) Hydralazine (B) Phenoxybenzamine
(C) Beta blocker (D) Calcium channel blocker
132. Endemic syphilis is caused by
(A) Treponema pallidum pallidum (B) Treponema pallidum pertenue
(C) T pallidum subsp endemicum (D) T carateum
133. Most common cause of secondary hypertension?
(A) Renal parenchymal diseases
(B) Pheochromocytoma
(C) Erythropoietin usage
(D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 17 hydroxylase deficiency
134. The term rapid cycling in bipolar disorder is used for patients who have _______ episodes of
either depression or mania in a given period
(A) ³ 5 (B) ³ 4
(C) £ 4 (D) £ 3
135. Not a feature of Behcet’s syndrome
(A) Myocarditis (B) Demyelination
(C) DVT (D) Arteritis
136. HTLV - 1 virus belongs to which genus?
(A) a retro virus (B) b retrovirus
(C) retro virus (D) d retro virus
137. Epsilon wave in electrocardiogram is seen in
(A) Hypotrhermia (B) Early repolarisation syndrome
(C) Tako- Tsubo syndrome (D) Arrythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
138. The hallucinations in schizophrenia are typically
(A) Auditory (B) Visual
(C) Tactic (D) Olfactory
139. Which of the following is least involved in pathogenesis of RA
(A) PIP (B) DIP
(C) Wrist (D) Elbow
140. Which statement about the management of atrial fibrillation is false?
(A) A CHADS-VaSc > 2 is an indication for anticoagulation
(B) Atrial fibrillation > 48hrs is an indication for anticoagulation prior to cardioversion
(C) Dabigatran use is safe in patients with end stage renal disease
(D) Warfarin is preferred over antithrombin inhibitor in valvular AF
141. Major depression is defined as depressed mood on a daily basis for a minimum duration of
(A) 10 days (B) One month
(C) 2 weeks (D) 7 days
142. Which among the following is neurotoxic snake poison?
(A) Cobra (B) Russell viper
(C) Sea snakes (D) Pit viper
143. Which of the following antibiotics used in malaria?
(A) Piperacillin (B) Ofloxacin
(C) Azithromycin (D) Doxycyclin
144. Becks triad for cardiac tamponade diagnosis includes all except
(A) Prominent v wave in JVP (B) Soft heart sounds
(C) Hypotension (D) Prominent x descent
145. The most prevalent psychiatric illness in the general community is
(A) Schizophrenia (B) Anxiety disorder
(C) Depression (D) Anorexia nervosa
146. Most common cause of hemoptysis involving lung parenchyma
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Bronchial adenoma
(C) Lung abscess (D) Suppurative pneumonia
147. Turner syndrome is characterized by all except
(A) 47XXY (B) Streak ovaries
(C) Coarctation of aorta (D) Short stature
148. Extra intestinal manifestations of IBD are all except
(A) Peripheral arthritis (B) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
(C) Erythema nodosum (D) Bowel perforation
149. Coumarin induced skin necrosis is associated with institution of oral anticoagulants in patients
with
(A) Anti thrombin III deficiency (B) Protein C deficiency
(C) Factor VIII deficiency (D) Plasminogen deficiency
150. A feature of ITP common to both children and adult
(A) Occurrence after antecedent viral illness
(B) Presence of antibodies against glycoprotein IIb-IIIa complex
(C) Absence of splenomegaly
(D) Persistence of thrombocytopenia for more than 6months
151. The following are the uses of EEG except
(A) Diagnose seizure disorder and decide on medications
(B) Assess prognosis of seizure disorder
(C) Predict seizures in patients with head injury
(D) Confirm brain death
152. Occlusion of which of the following arteries typically produces Wallenberg syndrome?
(A) Basilar artery (B) Vertebral artery
(C) Superior cerebellar artery (D) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
153. Ventricular tachycardia occurs most commonly in all except
(A) Acuter MI (B) Chronic coronary artery disease
(C) Rheumatic valvular heart disease (D) Cardiomyopathy
154. Cholinergic muscarinic effects of organophsphorous poisoning is all except
(A) Bronchorrhoea (B) Miosis
(C) Dry mouth (D) Bradycardia
155. Major Jones criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic heart disease includes all except
(A) Chorea (B) Fever
(C) Carditis (D) Polyarthritis
156. A patient suffering from HIV infection and HAART therapy. He present with lipodystrophy.
Lab investigation suggestive of hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Which of the
following drugs is most likely responsible for these effects ?
(A) Zidivudine (B) Ritonavir
(C) Nevirapine (D) Lamivudine
157. All are true about central hypothyroidism except,
(A) The most common cause is craniopharyngioma
(B) Treatment of done according to TSH level in plasma
(C) TSH level is not good indicator for diagnosis
(D) Before starting treatment checkout for adrenal insuffiency
158. Which of the following is a feature of celphos poisoning?
(A) Arrhythmia (B) Shock
(C) ARDS (D) All of the above
159. The ratio of the chest compression to rescue breath for alone rescure in CPR for all ages is?
(A) 30 : 2 (B) 15 : 2
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 30 : 1
160. Most common paroxysmal regular SVT is?
(A) Inappropriate sinus tachycardia (B) Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia
(C) Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (D) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
161. A chronic alcoholic presenting with bleeding gums and petechiae is more likely to have
deficiency of?
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Vitamin C
(C) Thiamine (D) Pyridoxine
162. Significant weight loss is
(A) ³ 5% over 6-12 months (B) ³ 10% over 6-12 months
(C) ³ 5% over 6 weeks (D) ³ 10% over 6 weeks
163. ANCA antibodies seen in _______ ?
(A) Wagener’sgranulomatosis (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis (D) Psoriatic arthritis
164. Puff of smoke appearance on cerebral angiography is seen in
(A) ACA Aneurysm (B) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(C) Moya moya disease (D) Vein of gallen malformation
165. Drug of choice for treatment of type 2 Brittle Asthma is?
(A) b-adrenergic agonis (B) Inhaled corticosteroids
(C) Antileukotrines DM (D) Subcutaneous epinephrine
166. Which of the following anti tubercular drug is associated with hypothyroidism?
(A) Rifampicin (B) Pyrazinamide
(C) Ethionamide (D) Streptomycin
167. Chronic laxative abuse associated with
(A) hypokalemia (B) hypomagnesemia
(C) hypocalcemia (D) All of the above
168. Megaloblastic anemia due to folate deficiency from low folate diet develops within:
(A) 4 months (B) 1 years
(C) 4 years (D) 10 years
169. What blood group system antibodies are more commonly associated with delayed transfusion
reaction?
(A) Rh (B) ABO
(C) MNS (D) Lewis
170. What microorganisms grows well at 4° C and may result in transfusion-transmitted sepsis?
(A) staphylococcus aurous (B) Yersinia entercolitica
(C) staphylococcus epidermidis (D) bacilluscereus
171. All the hormones are known to influence fetal growth except
(A) Thyroxine (B) Growth hormone
(C) Glucocorticoids (D) Insulin
172. Growth hormone therapy is approved for all except
(A) GH deficiency (B) Turner syndrome
(C) Chronic renal failure (D) Constitutional growth delay
173. Upper limit of age for attainment of milestone – Standing alone
(A) 12 months (B) 14 months
(C) 18 months (D) 24 months
174. If bladder control is not established after this age, we call it enuresis.
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years
(C) 2 years (D) 5 years
175. Legal age for responsibility of crime is
(A) 18 years (B) 16 years
(C) 12 years (D) 14 years
176. All are causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis except
(A) RTA (B) Ureteral sigmoidostomy
(C) Diarrhea (D) Diabetic Keto acidosis
177. WHO criteria for severe acute malnutrition
(A) Wt/Ht < - 3SD (B) MUAC < 12.5 cm
(C) Wt/ Age < - 3SD (D) Ht/ Age < - 3SD
178. F100 diet provides at least
(A) 0.9 gm of protein/ 100ml (B) 2.5 to 3.0 g of protein/ 100ml
(C) 2gm of protein (D) 1.5 gm of protein/ 100ml
179. Vit D deficienct Rickets shows radiological evidence of healing within
(A) 4 weeks (B) 6 weeks
(C) 5 weeks (D) 8 weeks
180. Endemic selenium deficiency results in Keshan disease, a form of
(A) Skeletal myopathy (B) Cardiomyopathy
(C) Neurological disease (D) Skin disorder
181. Extended APGAR scores should be obtained every 5 minutes up to
(A) 15 minutes (B) 10 minutes
(C) 20 minutes (D) 30 minutes
182. Newborn is in cold stress if the axillary temperature is
(A) 36.5 – 37 C (B) 36.0 – 36.4 C
(C) 34 – 35.9 C (D) 32 – 34 C
183. DPT vials are stored in the _______ compartment of the refrigerator.
(A) Top racks of the main compartment (B) Middle racks of the main compartment
(C) Lower racks of the main compartment (D) Freezer compartment
184. Fifth disease is caused by
(A) Human herpes virus 6 (B) Human herpes virus 7
(C) Parvovirus B19 (D) Echovirus 16
185. All are features of functional constipation except
(A) Stool withholding behavior (B) Soft to hard stools in P/R examination
(C) Rectum larger than sigmoid (D) Recto-anal inhibitory reflex absent
186. Vit K dependent coagulation factors
(A) II (B) VIII
(C) Protein C (D) IX
187. Sweat chloride values in cystic fibrosis
(A) > 40mEq/L (B) > 60mEq/L
(C) > 30mEq/L (D) > 50mEq/L
188. Revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever – major criteria includes
(A) Subclinical carditis (B) Chorea
(C) Subcutaneous nodules (D) All of the above
189. Denys – Drash syndrome show mutations in the
(A) WT3 gene (B) PLCE 1 gene
(C) NPHS 2 gene (D) WT1 gene
190. Evaluation following 1st episode of urinary tract infection in infants includes all except
(A) DTPA (B) USG
(C) MCU (D) DMSA
191. Pubertal onset before what age is suggestive of precocious puberty in boys?
(A) 8 years (B) 9 years
(C) 9.5 years (D) 10.5 years
192. Long acting insulins include all except
(A) Glargine (B) Glulisine
(C) Detemir (D) Deglude
193. Ipsilateral rail road pattern of intracranial calcification is seen in
(A) Tuberous sclerosis (B) Neurofibramatosis
(C) Von HippelLindau disease (D) Sturge Weber syndrome
194. Diagnostic criteria of Hemophagocytic Lympho Histiocytosis includes
(A) Fibrinogen < 1.5g/L (B) Ferritin < 250 ug/L
(C) Platelets < 1.5 lakhs (D) Hepatomegaly
195. Edward syndrome
(A) Trisomy 18 (B) Trisomy 13
(C) Trisomy 21 (D) None of the above
196. Autosomal recessive inheritance
(A) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria (B) Erythropoietic protoporphyria
(C) Porphyria cutaneatarda (D) Variegate porphyria
197. ET tube size for preterm newborn < 1kg
(A) 2.5 (B) 3.0
(C) 2.0 (D) 3.0 - 3.5
198. Cryoprecipitate contains all except
(A) Factor VIII (B) Fibrinogen
(C) Fibronectin (D) Factor XII
199. Indications for renal biopsy in acute glomerulonephritis includes all except
(A) Normal levels of C3 in the acute stage (B) Normal C3 levels beyond 12 weeks
(C) Persistent proteinuria beyond 6 months (D) Gross hematuria persisting past 3-4 weeks
200. Most common cause of vasculitis in children
(A) Lupus nephritis (B) Henoch Schnolein purpura
(C) Kawasaki disease (D) Takaysu arteritis
Part 2
001. All are true about synovial fluid except:-
(A) Secreted by Type A synovial cells (B) Follows Non neutonian movement
(C) Contains hyaluronic acid (D) Viscosity is variable
002. Most common site of tuberculosis of spine is:-
(A) Thracolumber (B) Sacral
(C) Cervical (D) Lumbosacral
003. In axillary nerve injury, all are true except:-
(A) Wasting of deltoid (B) Weakness of extension of shoulder
(C) Numbness on lateral aspect of shoulder (D) Weakens of initiation of shoulder abduction
004. Montaggia feature is a:-
(A) Fracture of atlas
(B) Fracture of redial stuloid
(C) Fracture of proximal 1/3 of ulna with dislocation of proximal radioulnar joint
(D) Fracture of distal 1/3 of radius with dislocation of distal reduoulnar joint
005. Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by
(A) Presence of pus in anterior chamber (B) No tendency to recurrence
(C) Corneal hypoesthesia (D) Tendency to perforate
006. Painless loss of vision is seen in all except :
(A) Papilloedema (B) Papillitis
(C) CRAO (D) Angle closure glaucoma
007. Which retinal layer is most radio resistant:-
(A) RPE (B) Layers of roads and cones
(C) Bipolar cell layer (D) Ganglion cell layer
008. Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is characteristics of:-
(A) Glaucoma (B) Optic Neuritis
(C) Pituitary tumor (D) Retinal detachment
009. Which of the following is contraindicated in head injury?
(A) Ketamine (B) Halothane
(C) N2O (D) Propofol
010. Propofol infusion syndrome all except:-
(A) Occurs with infusion of propofol for 48 hrs or longer
(B) Occurs in critically ill patients
(C) Features are nausea and vomiting
(D) Features are cardiomyopathy, Hepatomegaly
011. Patients underwent inguinal lymph node dissection and drain was placed, on 10th day severe
bleeding occurs, what type of bleeding is this?
(A) Reactionary hemorrhage (B) Secondary
(C) Primary (D) Tertiary
012. Poor wound healing may be due to all of the following except:-
(A) Smoking (B) Excessive tension on sutures
(C) Young age (D) Diabetes
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 2 [Contd.
013. Hypertrophic scaring – true is:-
(A) Usually occurs across the flexural area (B) Does not improve with time
(C) Overgrows its boundaries (D) Develops months after surgery
014. In neonatal ICU, screening for hearing abnormalities is done using:-
(A) Transient evoked OAE (B) Distortion product OAE
(C) BERA (D) Automated OAE
015. Most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:-
(A) Steph. aures (B) H. influenzae
(C) Streptococcus pneumonie (D) Moraxella catarrhal
016. Eustachian tube function is is best assessed by:-
(A) VEMP (B) Politzer test
(C) Rhinomenometry (D) Pure tone audiograme
017. A 25 years old female mate with a car accident, her GCS was normal, Hear Rate 150/min, BP 90/
60 mmHg, Respiratory Rate of 20/min. On examination her JVP was raised, abdomen was not
tendor and she had ecchymosis over her anterior chest. Breath sounds were absent on one side.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
(A) Cardiac temponade (B) Tension pneumothorax
(C) Massive hemothorax (D) Pleural effusion
018. Following a blunt trauma abdomen, renal laceration with urinoma was there after 2 days. Patient
was stable no fever. How will you manage the patient?
(A) Percutaneous exploration and repair (B) Wait and watch
(C) Placing urinary stent (D) Percutaneous nephrostomy
019. Child with midline swelling in the neck most probable diagnosis:-
(A) Thyroglossal cyst (B) Thyroid
(C) Cystic hygroma (D) Dermoid cyst
020. True about branchial anomaly:-
(A) Cysts are more common than sinuses
(B) For sinuses, surgery is not always indicated
(C) Cysts presents with dysphagia and hoarseness of voice
(D) Most commonly due to 2nd branchial remnant
021. After on RTA adult patient was admitted in hospital with PR 116/min, RR 24/min, BP 120/80
mmHg, Mild anxious nature, how much amount of blood is lost in this patients?
(A) < 750ml (B) 750 - 1500ml
(C) 1500 - 2000ml (D) > 2000ml
022. Which of the following is the best guide for fluid resuscitation in shock?
(A) CVP (B) Urine output
(C) Pulse Rate (D) Pulse volume
023. Which of the following is not used for intravascular volume maintenance is :-
(A) Hydroxyethyl starch (B) Dextran
(C) Erythropoietin (D) Gelatin
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 3 P.T.O.
024. Comments site of extra gonadal germ cell tumor is:-
(A) Retroperitoneum (B) Sacrococcygeal region
(C) Pineal gland (D) Mediastinum
025. Indication of surgery in pulmonary TB:-
(A) Suspicion of malignancy (B) Cavitatory lesion with aspergilloma
(C) Massive hemoptysis (D) All of the above
026. Surgery for undescended testes is recommend at what age?
(A) 6 months (B) 12 months
(C) 24 months (D) 36 months
027. Triad of hemobilia includes all except;-
(A) Pain (B) Fever
(C) GI bleeding (D) Jaundice
028 Bilateral pulseless disease in upper limb is:-
(A) Aorto arteritis (B) Coarctation of aorta
(C) Fibromuscular dysplasia (D) Buerger disease
029. Removal of senescent RBC from circulation by spleen is called:-
(A) Culling (B) Pitting
(C) Filtering (D) Phagocytosis
030. Ectopic pancreatic tissue is present in all except:-
(A) Stomach (B) Meckel’s diverticulum
(C) Mesentery (D) Umbilicus
031. From the index finger infection goes to:-
(A) Thenar space (B) Hypothenar space
(C) Mid palmar space (D) Space of parona
032. Commonest presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:-
(A) Painless enlargement of lymph node (B) Pruritus
(C) Fever (D) Leucocytosis
033. Not a premalignant ulcer:-
(A) Bazin ulcer (B) Paget’s disease of nipple
(C) Marjolin’s ulcer (D) Lupus vulgaris
034. Organ most commonly damage in penetrating injury of abdomen is:-
(A) Liver (B) Small intestine
(C) Large intestine (D) Duodenum
035. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:-
(A) Dubin Jhonson syndrome (B) Criggler najjar syndrome
(C) Criggler najjar syndrome-II (D) Gilbert syndrome
036. Most frequent site of accessory breast:-
(A) Axilla (B) Groin
(C) Buttock (D) Thigh
037. Lymphatic drainage of breast by all except:-
(A) Axillary (B) Supra clavicular
(C) Internal mammary (D) Mediastinal
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 4 [Contd.
038. A person has been brought in casualty with history of RTA. He had lost consciousness transiently
and gained consciousness but again become unconscious. Most likely, he is having brain
hemorrhage:-
(A) Intra cerebral (B) Sub arachnoid
(C) Subdural (D) Extra dural
039. Doxycycline is useful in infections caused by all of the following bacteria except
(A) Leptospira interrogans (B) Brucellla abortus
(C) Chlamydia ytachomatis (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
040. A 70 yrs old patient on warfarin for DVT has presented with raised INR of 6.5 and mild bleeding
from gum. Bleeding can be best treated by administration which one of following?
(A) Platelets (B) Protein c
(C) Thrombin (D) Vitamin k
041. Spirometer can be used to directly measure of the following?
(A) FRC (B) Total lung capacity
(C) Residual volume (D) Vital capcity
042. On clinical examination of 66 yrs old man has, a decreased in diastolic pressure, an increase
pulse pressure and diastolic murmur prominent over left sternal border. Of following which is
the most likely diagnosis ?
(A) Mitral stenosis (B) Pulmonary regurgitation
(C) Aortic regurgitation (D) Pulmonic stenosis
043. A 40 yrs old male presented with complain of exhaustion and shortness of breath. After compete
examination which of clinical observation led to putative diagnosis of cardiac temponade ?
(A) Bradycardia (B) Expiratory rales
(C) Pulsus paradoxus (D) Third heart sound
044. An 18 yrs old man with pernicious anemia lacks of intrinsic factor, which is necessary for
absorption of vit B12, is absorbed primarily in which portion of GIT?
(A) Stomach (B) Duodenum
(C) Jejunum (D) Ileum
045. In patient with profuse watery diarrhea caused by Escherichia. Coli, which of the following
sodium reabsorption pathway is inhibited by the enterotoxin?
(A) Electro neutral NaCl transport (B) Sodium – bile salt transport
(C) Sodium –glucose coupled co-transport (D) Sodium – hydrogen counter transport
046. Insulin independent glucose uptake occurs in which of the following sites?
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Brain
(C) Cardiac muscle (D) Skeletal muscle
047. Patient with hyperkalemic renal failure is given of glucose and insulin. The action of insulin
include which of following?
(A) Converting glucogen to glucose (B) Enhancing potassium entry in to cell
(C) Reducing urine formation (D) Increasing plasma amino acid concentration
048. A 22 year old male presents with complaints of severe itching & scaly lesions in groin for the past
month. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
(A) Trichophyton rubrum (B) Candida albicans
(C) Malassezia furfur (D) Candida glabrata
049. Herpes resistant to acyclovir is treated with:-
(A) Foscarnet (B) Lamivudine
(C) Valacylovir (D) Ganciclovir
050. A patient presented with scarring alopecia, thinned nails, hyperpigmented macular lesions over
the trunk & oral mucosa. The diagnosis is:-
(A) Psoriasis (B) Leprosy
(C) Lichen planus (D) Pemphigus
051. Best tumor marker for CA head of pancreas?
(A) CA 19 - 9 (B) CEA
(C) CA 125 (D) AFP
052. Hasselback’s triangle is bounded by the following, expect:
(A) Rectus addominis muscles (B) Transversus adbominis muscles
(C) Inferior epigastric atery (D) Inguinal ligament
053. Funicular hernia is type of;
(A) Direct inguinal hernia (B) Indirect inguinal hernia
(C) Femoral hernia (D) Umbilical hernia
054. Most frequent causes of acute retention of urine include all except:
(A) Meatal ulcer with scabbling in children (B) Haemorrhoidectomy
(C) Herniorraphy (D) Fecal impaction
055. Which is the earliest symptoms of benign hypertrophy of prostate?
(A) Frequency (B) Hematuria
(C) Incontinence (D) Strangury
056. A patient with a suspected renal tumor / mass in diagnosed by exfoliative urinary cytology.
Which of the following histological types is most likely to be diagnosed on urinary exfoliative
cytology.
(A) Transitional cell carcinoma
(B) Adenocarcinoma
(C) Well differentiated carcinoma (low grade)
(D) All three type can be easily detected on exfoliative cytology
057. A young patient presents to the emergency department with fever and right upper quadrant
pain clinical examination reveals obvious hepatomegaly but there is no jaundice. Ultrasound
reveals a solitary, homogeneous, hypoechoic lesion in right lobe, measuring 5 cm ´ 5 cm ´ 4 cm.
Test for hydatid disease were negative, which of the following is the best recommendation for
initial treatment?
(A) Multiple aspiration and antibiotics / antiamoebics
(B) Catheter drainage and antiamoebics/ antibiotics
(C) Antiamoebics / antibiotics alone
(D) Hepatectomy followed by antiamoebic / antibiotics
058. Nipple inversion occurs due to involvement of:
(A) Cooper’s ligament (B) Subareolar duct
(C) Parenchyma of breast (D) Sub dermal lymphatics
059. Hypoparathyroidism occurs as a result of:
(A) Idiopathic atrophy of parathyroid
(B) Following surgery
(C) Thyroiditis with secondary atrophy of parathyroid
(D) All of the above
060. Most common cause of addison’s disease in India :
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Post partum
(C) Auto immune (D) HIV
061. The vessel which need to be ligated in a patient with a bleeding peptic ulcer is:
(A) Gastroduodenal artery (B) Superior pancreatico-duodenal artery
(C) Left gastric artery (D) Left gastro epiploic artery
062. Recurrent obstruction, mass per rectum and diarrhea in child:
(A) Intussusceptions (B) Rectal prolapse
(C) Internal hernia (D) Hemorrhoids
063. Fleischner sign on barium study seen in:
(A) Ileocecal TB (B) Crohn’s disease
(C) Small bowel carcinoid (D) Typhoid
064. A 25 years old man presents with 3 days history of pain in the right lower abdomen and vomiting,
patient’s general condition is satisfactory and clinical examination reveals a tender lump in
right iliac fossa. The most appropriate management in this case would be:
(A) Immediate appendectomy (B) Exploratory laparotomy
(C) Ochsnsner - sherren regimen (D) External drainage
065. Best method to assess burns in 5 years old child caused by boiling water:
(A) Palm method (B) Rule of nine
(C) Lund and browder chart (D) Rule of one
066. IV formula for burn is:
(A) Total % body surface areas ´ weight ´ 4= volume of ml.
(B) Total % BSA ´ weight ´ 5 = volume of ml.
(C) Total % BSA ´ weight ´ 6 = volume of ml.
(D) Total % BSA ´ weight ´ 7 = volume of ml.
067. In which case pneumococcal vaccine is most effective?
(A) When given pre operatively (B) When given post operatively
(C) Against all strain of bacteria (D) Against gram negative bacteria
068. Which of the following causes least irritation of the peritoneal cavity?
(A) Bile (B) Blood
(C) Gastric enzyme (D) Pancreatic enzyme
069. Commonest cause of pyogenic liver abscess:
(A) Aspiration (B) Hematogenous spread from a distant site
(C) Direct contact (D) Lymphatic spread
070. A 35 years old female with amenorrhea, galactorrhea has bitemporal hemianopia, the most
probable diagnosis is:
(A) GNRH adenoma (B) Sellar chordoma
(C) Craniopharyngioma (D) Prolactin secreting pituitary micro adenoma
071. Mixed tumors of the salivary gland are:
(A) Most common in submandibular gland (B) Usually malignant
(C) Most common in parotid gland (D) Associated with calculi
072. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population:
(A) Tongue (B) Floor of mouth
(C) Alveobuccal complex (D) Lip
073. Virchow nodes are included in:
(A) Level-II (B) Level IV
(C) Level-III (D) Level-V
074. In LAHSHAL terminology for cleft lip and cleft palate, LAHSHAL denotes:
(A) Bilateral cleft palate only (B) Bilateral cleft lip only
(C) Bilateral cleft lip and palate (D) No cleft
075. Which one of the following is not a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the bifurcation
of aorta (leriche syndrome):
(A) Claudication of buttock and thigh (B) Claudication of the calf
(C) Sexual impotence (D) Gangrene localized to the feet
076. Commonest part of subclavian artery to be affected by stenosis:
(A) First part (B) Second part
(C) Third part (D) Equally affected
077. Contraindication for surgery in varicose veins:
(A) DVT (B) Multiple incompetent perforators
(C) Ulcer at ankle (D) None of the above
078. Commonest cause of unilateral pedal edema in India is:
(A) Filariasis (B) Post traumatic
(C) Post irradiation (D) Milroy’s disease
079. A young male presented with dyspnea, bleeding and petechial hemorrhage in the chest after two
days following fracture shaft of the femur right side most likely cause is:
(A) Air embolism (B) Fat embolism
(C) Pulmonary thromboembolism (D) Amniotic fluid thromboembolism
080. What is the most important aspect of management of burn injury in first 24 hours?
(A) Fluid resuscitation (B) Dressing
(C) Escharotomy (D) Antibiotics
081. Which is the best test for diagnosis of acute appendicitis in a pregnant female?
(A) Alder’s test (B) Aaron’s test
(C) Angell’s test (D) Mcburney’s test
082. After bilateral adrenalectomy patient developed gradual loss of vision with hyper pigmentation
of skin and headache likely cause is:
(A) Addison’s disease (B) Nelson’s syndrome
(C) Cushing syndrome (D) Hypopituitarism
083. Triple assessment for Ca breast includes:
(A) History, clinical examination and mammogram
(B) History, clinical examination and FNAC
(C) USG, mammogram and FNAC
(D) Clinical examination, mammogram and FNAC
084. A patient is advised to avoid strenuous activity following hernioraphy for a period of:
(A) 6 weeks (B) 6 months
(C) 3 weeks (D) 3 months
085. Most common nerve injured during hernia surgery:
(A) Ilioinguinal nerve (B) Iliohypogastric nerve
(C) Genitofemoral nerve (D) None of the above
086. Most common complication of splenectomy:
(A) OPSI
(B) Avascular necrosis of greater curvature of stomach
(C) Pancreatitis
(D) Atelectasis
087. Most common indication for operation in tuberculosis of intestine is:
(A) Obstruction (B) Perforation
(C) Mass abdomen (D) GI symptoms
088. Most common cause of generalized peritonitis in a 40 year old adult male is:
(A) Enteric perforation (B) Ruptured liver abscess
(C) Duodenal ulcer perforation (D) Perforated Ca stomach
089. If suture marks are to be avoided, skin sutures should be removed by:-
(A) 72 hours (B) 1 week
(C) 2 weeks (D) 3 weeks
090. Vanishing bile duct syndrome is seen in
(A) Chronic viral hepatitis (B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Lymphoma (D) Alcoholism
091. Which of the following is not true regarding ureteric colic
(A) Severity of pain increases with size of calculus
(B) Hematuria is invariably seen in all cases
(C) Pain may radiate to the anterior aspect of thigh
(D) Pain may radiate to tip of the penis
092. Specific marker for prostatic cancer is:
(A) Alkaline phosphatase (B) Prostate specific antigen
(C) Acid phosphatase (D) CA - 125
093. Commonest organism giving rise to urinary tract infection:
(A) E. Coli (B) Proteus
(C) Staphylococcus (D) Streptococcus
094. The Reynold’s pentad of fever, Jaundice right upper quadrant pain. Septic shock and mental
status change is typical of
(A) Cholangitis (B) Hepatitis
(C) Cholecytitis (D) Pancreatitis
095. Dancing carotid is seen in
(A) Thyrotoxicosis (B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) AV Fistula (D) Blow out carotid
096. Horner’s syndrome, all are true except:
(A) Miosis (B) Anhydrosis
(C) Hyperchrometic iris (D) Apparent exophthalmos
097. For reimplantation surgery, the detached limb or digit is best preserved in cold:-
(A) Glycerol (B) Distilled water
(C) Hypertonic saline (D) Isotonic saline
098. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is seen in:-
(A) Barret’s esophagus (B) Achalasia cardia
(C) Scleroderma (D) Menetrier’s disease
099. Commonest association seen in carcinoma gall bladder:-
(A) Peritoneal deposits (B) Duodenal infiltration
(C) Secondaries of liver (D) Cystic node involvement
100. Circumcision is contraindicated in:-
(A) Balanitis (B) Hypospadiasis
(C) Paraphimosis (D) Meatal stenosis
101. Complications of pre-eclampsia are all except-
(A) Post-datism (B) DIC
(C) Blindness (D) None of the above
102. In a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism, the safest drug to be used is-
(A) Propylthiourecil (B) Methimazole
(C) Carbimazole (D) Lugols iodine
103. Crying of fetus in-utero is called as-
(A) Vagitus uterinus (B) First cry
(C) Utero vaginalis (D) Vagitus vaginae
104. Betamethasone given to preterm patient for all except-
(A) Fetal lung maturity (B) Decrease intraventricular hemorrhage
(C) Prevents periventricular leukomalacia (D) Prevents PPH
105. Which is not a feature of inevitable abortion-
(A) Bleeding PV (B) Pain
(C) Closed internal Os (D) None of the above
106. Variable decelaration seen in-
(A) Head compression (B) Utero placental insuffiency
(C) Cord compression (D) None of the above
107. Test used to detect genetic abnormalities in embryo before transferring it to the uterus in IVF is-
(A) Embryo cell biopsy (B) CVS
(C) ICSI (D) All of the above
108. Twin peak sign is seen in-
(A) All monozygotic twins (B) Monochorionic twins
(C) Dichorionic twins (D) Siamese twins
109. Godell’s sign is-
(A) Dusky hue of the vestibule
(B) Softening of the cervix
(C) Increased pulsations felt through the lateral fornices
(D) Regular and rhythmic contractions during bimanual examination
110. After delivery caput succedaneum disappears-
(A) Within 24 - 48 hrs. (B) 3 - 5 days
(C) 5 - 7 days (D) 7 - 10 days
111. Average duration of first stage of labour in primigravida is –
(A) 6 hrs. (B) 12 hrs.
(C) 16 hrs. (D) 18 hrs.
112. Complications of hypothyroidism in pregnancy include all except -
(A) First trimester abortion (B) IUGR
(C) Cretinism (D) ARDS
113. A 32 yrs old female with mild hypertension two days after normal delivery she develops seizures,
headache. No proteinuria was there. On imaging she was found to have parasagittal infarction
and hematoma 3 ´ 2 cm. The most probable cause is –
(A) Eclampsia (B) Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
(C) Pituitary apoplexy (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
114. Engaging diameter in face presentation is –
(A) Sub occipitobregmatic (B) Mentovertical
(C) Submentobregmatic (D) None of the above
115. Which of the following is useful in first trimester screening for Down syndrome?
(A) Inhibin (B) Estradiol
(C) PAPP-A (D) Acetylcholinesterase
116. Amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping is generally done at-
(A) 8-10 weeks (B) 10-12 weeks
(C) 14-18 weeks (D) 19-22 weeks
117. True support of uterus are all except-
(A) Uterosacral ligament (B) Meckenrodt’s ligament
(C) Broad ligament (D) Levator ani
106. Variable decelaration seen in-
(A) Head compression (B) Utero placental insuffiency
(C) Cord compression (D) None of the above
107. Test used to detect genetic abnormalities in embryo before transferring it to the uterus in IVF is-
(A) Embryo cell biopsy (B) CVS
(C) ICSI (D) All of the above
108. Twin peak sign is seen in-
(A) All monozygotic twins (B) Monochorionic twins
(C) Dichorionic twins (D) Siamese twins
109. Godell’s sign is-
(A) Dusky hue of the vestibule
(B) Softening of the cervix
(C) Increased pulsations felt through the lateral fornices
(D) Regular and rhythmic contractions during bimanual examination
110. After delivery caput succedaneum disappears-
(A) Within 24 - 48 hrs. (B) 3 - 5 days
(C) 5 - 7 days (D) 7 - 10 days
111. Average duration of first stage of labour in primigravida is –
(A) 6 hrs. (B) 12 hrs.
(C) 16 hrs. (D) 18 hrs.
112. Complications of hypothyroidism in pregnancy include all except -
(A) First trimester abortion (B) IUGR
(C) Cretinism (D) ARDS
113. A 32 yrs old female with mild hypertension two days after normal delivery she develops seizures,
headache. No proteinuria was there. On imaging she was found to have parasagittal infarction
and hematoma 3 ´ 2 cm. The most probable cause is –
(A) Eclampsia (B) Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
(C) Pituitary apoplexy (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
114. Engaging diameter in face presentation is –
(A) Sub occipitobregmatic (B) Mentovertical
(C) Submentobregmatic (D) None of the above
115. Which of the following is useful in first trimester screening for Down syndrome?
(A) Inhibin (B) Estradiol
(C) PAPP-A (D) Acetylcholinesterase
116. Amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping is generally done at-
(A) 8-10 weeks (B) 10-12 weeks
(C) 14-18 weeks (D) 19-22 weeks
117. True support of uterus are all except-
(A) Uterosacral ligament (B) Meckenrodt’s ligament
(C) Broad ligament (D) Levator ani
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 11 P.T.O.
118. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy-
(A) Fallopian tube isthmus (B) Fallopian tube ampulla
(C) Cervix (D) Ovary
119. Poor prognosis in first trimester USG is-
(A) No fetal pole at 5 weeks (B) No cardiac activity at 5 weeks
(C) No gestational sac at 4 weeks (D) No cardiac activity at 8 weeks
120. Dilatation and evacuation is done for all except-
(A) Inevitable abortion (B) Incomplete abortion
(C) Threatened abortion (D) None of the above
121. If the rectal mucosa is injured, it is which degree of perineal tear –
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) Fourth
122. Amniotic fluid completely replaced in every
(A) 3 hours (B) 6 hours
(C) 9 hours (D) 12 hours
123. Most common heart disease in pregnancy-
(A) MS (B) AS
(C) MR (D) WPW
124. Palmer’s sign elicits:
(A) Intermittent uterine contractions (B) Softening of cervix
(C) Pulsations in formix (D) Compressibility of Isthmus
125. DIC is Common with:
(A) Placenta preevia (B) Abruptio Placenta
(C) Placenta Accerta (D) Battldore Placenta
126. EMACO regimen is for –
(A) CA cervix (B) CA endometrium
(C) CA ovary (D) Choriocarcinoma
127. Which ovarian tumor can present with menorrhagia?
(A) Dermoid cyst (B) Epithelial ovarian cancer
(C) Granulosa cell tumor (D) Yolk sac tumor
128. What is not used in PCOS?
(A) OC pills (B) Cyclical progesterones
(C) Myo inositol (D) Danazol
129. Tumor marker for germ cell malignancy are all except –
(A) LDH (B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) AFP (D) CA 125
130. Investigation of choice for endometriosis –
(A) USG (B) CA 125
(C) MRI (D) Laparoscopy
131. Most common HPV type which causes cervical cancer?
(A) 6 (B) 11
(C) 16 (D) 18
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 12 [Contd.
132. Tamoxifen decreases the risk of which cancer?
(A) Breast (B) Endometrium
(C) Ovary (D) All of the above
133. Cryptomenorrhea occurs in –
(A) Fibroids (B) PCOS
(C) Imperforate hymen (D) All of the above
134. A 55 year old lady complaints of mass in the vagina which is reducible and increases on defecation.
Diagnosis is –
(A) Rectal prolapse (B) Uterine prolapse
(C) Cervical fibroid (D) Vaginal cancer
135. All are risk factors for CA endometrium except –
(A) Tamoxifen (B) Multiparity
(C) Obesity and hypertension (D) Late menopause
136. CA endometrium stage IA involves –
(A) Vagina (B) Cervical glands
(C) Cervical stroma (D) All of the above
137. IUCD having the longest life span is –
(A) Progestasert (B) Cu-T 380 A
(C) Mirena (D) Nova-T
138. Most common cause of primary amenorrhea is –
(A) Constitutional / idiopathic (B) RMKH syndrome
(C) Ovarian dysgenesis (D) None of the above
139. Drug of choice for anovulatory infertility is –
(A) Clomifene citrate (B) Letrozole
(C) Anastrozole (D) Gonadotropin
140. Contraception of choice for woman with heart disease is-
(A) OC pills (B) IUCD
(C) Barrier (D) Tubal ligation
141. A 55 years old lady presenting to OPD with post-menopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 2 ´ 2
cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently
is-
(A) Pap smear (B) Punch biopsy
(C) Endocervical‘ curettage (D) Colposcopy
142. Most common type of uterine polyp is:
(A) Mucosal polyp (B) fibroid
(C) placental polyp (D) None of the above
143 Living ligature of uterus is-
(A) Endometrium (B) Middle layer of myometrium
(C) Inner layer of myometrium (D) Parametrium
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 13 P.T.O.
144. A 19 year old patient presents to your office with primary amenorrhea .she has normal breast
and pubic hair development, but the uterus and vagina are absent. Diagnostic possibility includes:-
(A) Testicular feminization syndrome (B) Gonadal dysgenesis
(C) Mullerian agenesis (D) Klinefelter syndrome
145. An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua, diagnosed on HSG. Next treatment of
choice is –
(A) IVF (B) Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
(C) Tuboplasty (D) Hydrotubation
146. The distribution of 500 individuals with a particular disease is a right skewed distribution. The
sampling distribution of the sample mean (of size 50) will be
(A) Approximately normally distributed (B) Skewed
(C) No general statement can be made (D) None of the above
147. Correlation between X and Y is Positive when
(A) X increases & Y increases (B) X increases & Y decreases
(C) X decreases & Y decreases (D) (A) and (C)
148. Population growth is said to be less than adequate requirement when NRR is:
(A) < 1 (B) = 1
(C) > 1 (D) = 0
149. Birth rate is-
(A) live birth /1000 mid-year population
(B) Birth / 1000 mid-year population
(C) Live birth / 10000 mid-year population
(D) Live birth / 10000 population of reproductive age Group (15-45 year)
150. For a population of 10000, sex ratio of more than 1000 means-
(A) Males less than 500 (B) Females are less than 500
(C) Males are less than 5000 (D) Females are less than 5000
151. In a town of 36000 people, there are 1200 live births, and 60 infants death. What is the IMR?
(A) 50 (B) 25
(C) 10 (D) 5
152 Copper-T is preferably inserted postnatal after-
(A) 2 weeks (B) 4 weeks
(C) 5 weeks (D) 8 weeks
153. How much ethinylestradiol does the new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain
(IN MICROGRAMS)-
(A) 20 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 35
154. Demographic transition is-
(A) No gap between birth rate and death rate
(B) High difference between CBR and CDR
(C) C. Gap in sex %
(D) Gap in extreme age
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 14 [Contd.
155. Increased incidence of ectopic is associated with all except
(A) IUD (B) Combined oral pills
(C) Menstrual regulation (D) Safe period method
156 The medical termination of pregnancy act does not protect act of termination of pregnancies
after
(A) 20 weeks (B) 24 weeks
(C) 28 weeks (D) 30 weeks
157. Which of the fertility rates have midyear population as denominator?
(A) Crude birth rate (B) General fertility rate
(C) General marital fertility rate (D) All of the above
158. Barrier methods are all except
(A) diaphragm (B) foam tablets
(C) vaginal sponge (D) lippes loop
159. Under medical termination of pregnancy act of India, permission of MTP has to be given by
(A) wife only (B) Husband only
(C) Both wife and husband (D) Guardian
160. Contraceptive efficacy is measured by
(A) Pearl index only
(B) Pearl index and life table analysis
(C) Life table analysis and couple protection rate
(D) Pearl index and couple protection rate
161. Eligible couple per 1000 population in India is
(A) 50-70 (B) 100-120
(C) 150-180 (D) 200-250
162. Besides pregnancy the oral contraceptive protect against
(A) Fibro adenoma Brest (B) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) Ovarian cancer (D) Hepatocellular cancer
163. Definition of low vision
(A) Best corrected 6/60 to 3/60 (B) Best corrected 6/60 to 6/18
(C) Best corrected 1/60 to 3/60 (D) Best corrected 6/60 to 1/60
164. Which disease is transmitted by soft tick?
(A) KFD (B) Relapsing fever
(C) Tick typhus (D) Tularemia
165. Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is.
(A) MMR (B) Hep B
(C) Hep A (D) Measles
166. All are zoonosis except
(A) AIDS (B) Plague
(C) Taeniasis (D) Hydatidosis
167. Equal interview time eliminates
(A) Berksonian bias (B) Recall bias
(C) Selection bias (D) Interviewer bias
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 15 P.T.O.
168. Most cost effective family planning is
(A) Vasectomy (B) Tubectomy
(C) Copper T (D) Oral pills
169. Diphtheria like colitis in ascending & transverse colon caused by
(A) Lead (B) Arsenic
(C) Cadmium (D) Mercury
170. About Delphi method
(A) Formation of a team to undertake and monitor a Delphi on a given subject.
(B) Selection of one or more panels to participate in the exercise. Customarily, the panelists are
experts in the area to be investigated.
(C) Development of the first round Delphi questionnaire
(D) All are true
171. Random allocation of individuals to treatment and control groups in a randomized clinical trial
(A) Ensures that assignment to the groups occurs by chance only
(B) Ensures that the treatment and control groups are identical in all respects except the
intervention
(C) Eliminates selection bias at the start of the trial
(D) Eliminates compliance bias
172. Holder process for pasteurization is
(A) 65 degrees for 60 minutes (B) 45 degrees for 60 minutes
(C) 65 degrees for 30 minutes (D) 40 degrees for 60 minutes
173 The most important element of ethical research on human subjects is:
(A) Beneficence (B) Justice
(C) A methodologically sound study design (D) Informed consent
174. The requirements for an effective surveillance system include:
(A) algorithm (B) Staff members
(C) A sampling frame (D) All of the above
175. A good surveillance system should provide information about:
(A) Who is being infected. (B) Where the infected individuals are
(C) How rapidly infection is spreading (D) All of the above
176. The following is true about prevalence and incidence:
(A) Both are rates (B) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
(C) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not (D) Both are not rates
177. Isolation not useful for all except.
(A) Mumps (B) Measles
(C) Hepatitis A (D) Pneumonic plague
178. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by
(A) Flea (B) Mite
(C) Tick (D) Louse
179. Bad prognosis in PEM is indicated by all except,
(A) keratomalecia (B) hypothermia
(C) hepatomegaly (D) hypoalbuminemia
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 16 [Contd.
180. Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after silent period of
(A) 18 years (B) 20 years
(C) 28 years (D) 30 years
181. The incubation period of Measles is:
(A) 3 days (B) 10 days
(C) 21 days (D) 30 days
182. Dengue Shock Syndrome is characterized by following except
(A) Hepatomegaly (B) Pleural effusion
(C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Decreased haemoglobin
183. Laboratory report of disease sent as “L-form” in IDSP is:
(A) syndromic diagnosis (B) Presumptive diagnosis
(C) Confirmed diagnosis (D) Active surveillance
184. Vision 2020 includes excepts
(A) Onchocerciasis (B) Cataract
(C) Trachoma (D) Epidemic conjunctivitis
185. Which of the following is not DDT-resistant?
(A) Musca domestica (B) Phlebotamus
(C) Culex mosquito (D) Anopheles stephensi
186. The transmission of filariasis is an example of:
(A) Propagative transmission (B) Cyclic transmission
(C) Cyclo-development transmission (D) Cyclo-propagative transmission
187. Specific content in Malaria vaccine is:
(A) Gamatocytic protein (B) Polysaccharide sheath
(C) Sporozoite protein (D) lipoprotein envelop
188. ASHA is located at:
(A) Sub Centre (B) PHC
(C) CHC (D) Village
189. In UNICEF “GOBI COMPAGINE letter “O” stands for
(A) Oral contraceptive (B) Oral rehydration therapy
(C) Obesity (D) Occupational hazards
190. WHO funds which of the following programme in India?
(A) RNTCP (B) National leprosy eradication programme
(C) Janani surkhsha yogana (D) National old age pension plan
191. Ujjwala scheme is for prevention of
(A) Child abuse (B) Child trafficking
(C) Child labour (D) Child marriage
192. Janani Suraksha Yojana includes?
(A) Tetanus immunization (B) Institutional deliveries
(C) Iron supplementation (D) Abortions
193. Helpline for AIDS can be reached by dialing:
(A) 1079 (B) 1091
(C) 1098 (D) 1097
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 17 P.T.O.
194. Integrated Child Protection Scheme is under which ministry?
(A) Health & Family Welfare (B) Women & Child Development
(C) Home Affairs (D) Labour
195. Link weaker scheme are in which National health programme?
(A) RNTCP (B) NACP
(C) NLEP (D) ICDS
196. Epidemic after disaster are caused by all except:
(A) Leptospirosis (B) Rickttsipsis
(C) Leishmaniasis (D) H. pylori
197. Dose of vitamin A prophylaxis in 6-11 months old child is :
(A) 30,000 IU (B) 60,000 IU
(C) 1,00,00 IU (D) 2,00,00 IU
198. Most recent Immerging Global health threats to human
(A) Air pollution and climate change (B) Antimicrobial resistance
(C) Non communicable disease (D) None of the above
199. TeCHO+ is implemented in health care system by
(A) WHO (B) UNICEF
(C) Government of Gujarat (D) Government of India
200. Bioterrorism group – A agent is
(A) Q fever (B) Thyphus fever
(C) Anthrax (D) Brucellosis
001. Guardian of shoulder joint is
(A) Sub acromial bursa (B) Glenoidal labrum
(C) Rotator cuff (D) Coraco – humeral ligament
002. The largest branch of coeliac axis in fetal and early postnatal life is
(A) Left gastric artery (B) Hepatic artery
(C) Right gastric artery (D) Splenic artery
003. The largest division of thalamus is
(A) Lateral thalamic nuclei (B) Anterior thalamic nuclei
(C) Medial thalamic nuclei (D) Ventral posterior nuclei
004. Superior cerebellar artery is the branch of
(A) Posterior cerebral artery (B) Vertebral artery
(C) Basilar artery (D) Posterior spinal artery
005. Functional areas of cerebral cortex not connected by corpus callosum is
(A) Primary visual area (B) Primary auditory area
(C) Premotor area (D) Pre-frontal area
006. The right bundle branch of AV bundle derives blood supply from
(A) The right coronary artery (B) The left coronary artery
(C) Both the coronary arteries (D) Any one of the coronary arteries (Variably)
007. The pudendal nerve divides into it’s terminal branches in the
(A) Pudendal canal (B) Ischiorectal fossa
(C) Gluteal region (D) Pelvis
008. Conducting tissue of the heart is the modification of
(A) Epicardium (B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium (D) Nerve fibers
009. Which paranasal sinus is called as Bullar sinuses?
(A) Anterior ethmoidal air cells (B) Middle ethmoidal air cells
(C) Posterior ethmoidal air cells (D) Maxillary sinus
010. Uncinate process of pancreas is anteriorly related to
(A) Superior mesenteric vessels (B) Inferior mesenteric vessels
(C) Abdominal aorta (D) Portal vein
011. Ciliary epithelium is
(A) Trilaminar
(B) Unilaminar
(C) Bilaminar
(D) Basal lamina continuous with external limiting membrane of retina
012. Navicular fossa is found in
(A) Preprostatic urethra (B) Prostatic urethra
(C) Bulbar urethra (D) Penile urethra
013. What is true about meningeal arteries?
(A) They are all branches of maxillary artery.
(B) They all supply all three layers of meninges
(C) They do not supply lepto meninges
(D) Though they supply endocranium, they do not supply diploe.
014. Segmental innervation of quadriceps femoris muscle
(A) L2, L3, L4 (B) L4, L5
(C) L4, L5, S1, S2 (D) L5, S1
015. The circle of Willis
(A) Equalizes pressure of blood flow to both sides of brain.
(B) Has the middle cerebral artery in it’s lateral part.
(C) Is an arterio venous circle in interpeduncular fossa
(D) Has no role to play in collateral circulation.
016. The relation of uterine artery and ureter is remembered as
(A)Blood under the bridge (B) Lymph under the bridge
(C) Water under the bridge (D) Urine under the bridge
017. One of the extrinsic shoulder muscle is
(A) Levator scapulae (B) Deltoid
(C) Pectoralis major (D) Supraspinatus
018 Gluteus medius muscle is supplied by :-
(A) Obturator artery (B) Ilio-inguinal artery
(C) Superior gluteal artery (D) Inferior gluteal artery
019. All of following statements of adrenal gland are true except:-
(A) Both are supplied by 3 arteries
(B) Both adrenal glands drain directly into inferior vena cava
(C) Right gland is pyramidal in shape
(D) Average weight is about 5 gms
020. Intervertebral disc is an example for
(A) hyaline cartilage (B) sponge bone
(C) elastic cartilage (D) fibro cartilage
021. Platelet factor 4 is contained in _______ of platelets
(A) Dense bodies (B) Lysosomes
(C) Alpha granules (D) Peroxisomes
022. Normal Interstitial fluid Hydrostatic pressure is
(A) 3 mm Hg (B) – 3 mm Hg
(C) 6 mm Hg (D) – 6 mm Hg
023. The normal intrapleural pressure at the beginning of inspiration is
(A) 5 mm Hg (B) 1 mm Hg
(C) – 2.5 mm Hg (D) – 6 mm Hg
024. The solubility of CO2 in blood is _______ times that of Oxygen
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 20 (D) 100
025. Transfer of which of the following gas across the alveolo capillary membrane is diffusion limited
(A) Nitrous Oxide (B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Carbon Dioxide (D) Oxygen
026. Synthetic Dexamethasone is _______ as potent as Cortisol
(A) 2 times (B) 50 times
(C) 10 times (D) 30 times
027. Testosterone is formed by
(A) Interstitial cells of Leydig (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Fibroblast (D) Germinal epithelium
028. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH in pulses lasting for
(A) 5 – 25 minutes (B) 40 – 60 minutes
(C) 60 – 90 minutes (D) 2 – 4 minutes
029. The first meiotic division of the Oocyte occurs
(A) During early embryonic period (B) Fifth month of fetal development
(C) After puberty (D) Before pregnancy
030. Augmented limb leads, compared to the non-augmented leads, increase the size of the potentials by
(A) 25% (B) 50%
(C) 75% (D) 100%
031. The total surface area of capillary bed of entire body is
(A) 500 – 700 m2 (B) 100 m2
(C) 250 – 400 m2 (D) 1000 m2
032. In peristalsis neurotransmitters producing relaxation ahead of the stimulus are
(A) Ach and substance P (B) VIP and NO
(C) Serotonin and dopamine (D) CGRP and adenosine
033. Most potent endogenous vasopressor is
(A) Angiotensin II (B) Renin
(C) Nor epinephrine (D) Epinephrine
034. What % of total body potassium is contained in the body cells?
(A) 50% (B) 38%
(C) 78% (D) 98%
035. The only output cells from the cerebellar cortex are the axons of
(A) Granule cells (B) Stellate cells
(C) Purkinje cells (D) Golgi cells
036. Carotid body baroreceptor is mosr sensitive to:-
(A) Mean arterial pressure (B) Diastolic blood pressure
(C) Systolic blood pressure (D) Pulse pressure
037. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on:
(A) Lean body mass (B) Adipose tissue
(C) Resting heart rate (D) Exercise
038. Increase in intracranial pressure is not associated with:
(A) Deterioration of consciousness (B) Tachycardia
(C) Respiratory depression (D) Increase in BP
039. Filtration pressure in glomeruli of kidney is:
(A) 10 mm of Hg (B) 6 mm of Hg
(C) 15 mm of Hg (D) 20 mm of Hg
040. Erythropoiesis is promoted by al the following except:
(A) ACTH (B) Thyroxin
(C) Oestrogen (D) Prolactin
041. On oxidation, glucose will give rise to all the following, except:
(A) glucuronic acid (B) gluconic acid
(C) glucosaccharic acid (D) glycoside
042. Hydrolysis of fat by alkali is called:
(A) Esterification (B) Inositol
(C) Mannitol (D) Choline
043. Glucose is absorbed by gastrointestinal cells by:
(A) Passive diffusion
(B) Carrier mediated co-transport system, along with sodium
(C) Carrier mediated antiport system , along with potassium
(D) Needs no ATP
044. Creatinine is synthesized from the following amino acids, except:
(A) Arginine (B) aspartic acid
(C) Glycine (D) Methionine
045. When pH falls by 1 unit , the hydrogen ion concentration :
(A) Decreases 10 times (B) Increases two fold
(C) Changes by 7 times (D) Increases 10 times
046. Nyctalopia is due to the deficiency of :
(A) vitamine K (B) vitamine E
(C) vitamine B12 (D) Vitamine A
047. Which one of following statements about the fed and fasting metabolic states is correct?
(A) Fatty acids and triacylglycerol are synthesized in the liver in the fasting state.
(B) In the fasting state the main fuel for the central nervous system is fatty acids released from
adipose tissue.
(C) In the fasting state the main metabolic fuel for most tissues comes from fatty acids released
from adipose tissue.
(D) In the fed state muscle cannot take up glucose for use as a metabolic fuel because glucose
transport in muscle is stimulated in response to glucagon.
048. All are true with regard to fructose intolerance, except:
(A) Defective enzyme is aldolase-B (B) Fructose-1-phosphate accumulates
(C) Glycogen phosphorylase is inhibited (D) Urine is positive for Rothera’s test
049. The key enzyme in the pathway of cholesterol biosynthesis is:
(A) HMG-CoA synthase (B) HMG-CoA lyase
(C) HMG-CoA reductase (D) Mevalonate kinase
050. Glutathione does all of the following except
(A) Participate in the transport of amino acids across some cell membranes.
(B) Acts as a cofactor for some enzymes.
(C) Form conjugates with some drugs to increase water solubility.
(D) Decreases the stability of erythrocyte membranes
051. Opalescent urine is seen in?
(A) Porphyria (B) Alkaptonuria
(C) Chyluria (D) Creatinuria
052. Which of the following compounds have a clearance value higher than GFR?
(A) Uric acid (B) Diodrast
(C) Urea (D) Inulin
053. Which of the following will have the lowest glycemic index?
(A) Baked apple (B) Baked potato
(C) Potato chips (D) Uncooked potato
054. Low levels of the following PUFA in the body causes the disease retinitis pigmentosa
(A) eicosatetraenoate (B) eicosapentaenoate
(C) docosahexaenoate (D) eicosatrienoate
055. Deficiency of LPL and apo C-II causes
(A) type I hyperlipidemia (B) type III hyperlipidemia
(C) type V hyperlipidemia (D) Tangier disease
056. One of the complications of tissue repair is
(A) Keloid (B) Ulcer
(C) Abscess (D) Wound contraction
057. Microalbuminuria is the persistent elevation of urinary albumin excretion in an early morning
urine sample
(A) 20-200 mg /L (B) 30-300 mg/L
(C) 10-100 mg/L (D) 40-400 mg/L
058. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is decreased in
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Rheumatic fever
(C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
059. Prolonged Prothrombin time is seen in the following conditions except
(A) Liver disease (B) Obstructive jaundice
(C) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (D) Patient on aspirin therapy
060. Heinz bodies are seen in
(A) Aplastic anemia (B) Hereditary spherocytosis
(C) G-6-PD deficiency (D) Iron deficiency anemia
061. Pleural effusion due to cardiac failure is an example of
(A) Serous inflammation (B) Fibrinous inflammation
(C) Purulent inflammation (D) Granulomatous inflammation
062. The following are examples of disease with granulomatous inflammation except
(A) Leprosy (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Actinomycosis (D) Sarcoidosis
050. Glutathione does all of the following except
(A) Participate in the transport of amino acids across some cell membranes.
(B) Acts as a cofactor for some enzymes.
(C) Form conjugates with some drugs to increase water solubility.
(D) Decreases the stability of erythrocyte membranes
051. Opalescent urine is seen in?
(A) Porphyria (B) Alkaptonuria
(C) Chyluria (D) Creatinuria
052. Which of the following compounds have a clearance value higher than GFR?
(A) Uric acid (B) Diodrast
(C) Urea (D) Inulin
053. Which of the following will have the lowest glycemic index?
(A) Baked apple (B) Baked potato
(C) Potato chips (D) Uncooked potato
054. Low levels of the following PUFA in the body causes the disease retinitis pigmentosa
(A) eicosatetraenoate (B) eicosapentaenoate
(C) docosahexaenoate (D) eicosatrienoate
055. Deficiency of LPL and apo C-II causes
(A) type I hyperlipidemia (B) type III hyperlipidemia
(C) type V hyperlipidemia (D) Tangier disease
056. One of the complications of tissue repair is
(A) Keloid (B) Ulcer
(C) Abscess (D) Wound contraction
057. Microalbuminuria is the persistent elevation of urinary albumin excretion in an early morning
urine sample
(A) 20-200 mg /L (B) 30-300 mg/L
(C) 10-100 mg/L (D) 40-400 mg/L
058. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is decreased in
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Rheumatic fever
(C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
059. Prolonged Prothrombin time is seen in the following conditions except
(A) Liver disease (B) Obstructive jaundice
(C) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (D) Patient on aspirin therapy
060. Heinz bodies are seen in
(A) Aplastic anemia (B) Hereditary spherocytosis
(C) G-6-PD deficiency (D) Iron deficiency anemia
061. Pleural effusion due to cardiac failure is an example of
(A) Serous inflammation (B) Fibrinous inflammation
(C) Purulent inflammation (D) Granulomatous inflammation
062. The following are examples of disease with granulomatous inflammation except
(A) Leprosy (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Actinomycosis (D) Sarcoidosis
077. Contact dermatitis comes under which type of hypersensitivity
(A) Type I (B) Type II
(C) Type III (D) Type IV
078. The most commonly used sterilisation condition for an autoclave is
(A) 138°C for 15 mins at 15lbs/psi (B) 121°C for 15 mins at 15lbs/psi
(C) 121°C for 15 mins at 18lbs/psi (D) 138°C for 15 mins at 18lbs/psi
079. The high temperature dry oxidation process that reduces organic and combustible waste into
non-organic incombustible manner is
(A) Incineration (B) Inertization
(C) Microwaving (D) Plasma pyrolysis
080. The urinary catheters after use are to be disposed into the following colour coded bin
(A) Red (B) White
(C) Yellow (D) Blue
081. Epitope is seen in
(A) Antigen (B) Antibody
(C) Complement (D) Platelets
082. Sporicidal agents are all except
(A) Ethylene Oxide (B) Formaldehyde
(C) Ethyl alcohol (D) Hydrogen peroxide
083. Robertson’s cooked meat medium is used for
(A) Culture of aerobic bacteria (B) Culture of anaerobes
(C) Fungal culture (D) Culture of parasites
084. Disinfectant used for sterilization of endoscopes
(A) 2% Glutaraldehyde (B) 5% Glutaraldehyde
(C) 10% Formaldehyde (D) 5% Formaldehyde
085. Bacteria which survives Holder method of pasteurization
(A) Mycobacteria (B) Brucella
(C) Salmonella (D) Coxiella
086. Multiple ring forms in a red blood cell are seen in
(A) Plasmodium ovale (B) Plasmodium vivax
(C) Plasmodium malariae (D) Plasmodium falcipararum
087. Entamoeba trophozoites are present in the lumen of
(A) Duodenum (B) Ileum
(C) Large intestine (D) Jejunum
088. Plasmodium malariae is the most important cause of transfusion malaria because
(A) Level of parasitemia is very high
(B) Merozoites remain in blood for very long period
(C) It is the most common form in tropics
(D) Spleen is infected
089. In pulmonary amoebiasis sputum examination will show
(A) Amoebic trophozoites (B) Amoebic cyst
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
090. The risk of vertical transmission of Hepatitis B virus is high if the mother is positive to
(A) Hbe Ag (B) HBs Ag
(C) Low levels of Anti HBs (D) Low levels of Anti Hbe
091. In mycobacterium tuberculosis culture negative report is given if no growth occurs after
(A) 8 weeks of incubation (B) 6 weeks of incubation
(C) 2-4 weeks of incubation (D) 1-2 weeks of incubation
092. Almost all tissues in human body can be affected by trophozoites of
(A) Amoebiasis (B) Filariasis
(C) Malaria (D) Leishmaniasis
093. All are non bile stained eggs except
(A) Eggs of Ascarisl umbricoides (B) Eggs of Ancylostoma duodenale
(C) Eggs of Enterobius vermicularis (D) Eggs of Hymenolepsis nana
094. Mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica contains how many nuclei
(A) 4 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 8
095. Common name for Ancylostoma duodenale
(A) Round worm (B) Hook worm
(C) Whip worm (D) Pin worm
096. Cephalic index determination is important for deducting
(A) Height (B) Sex
(C) Race (D) Cranial volume
097. Lucid interval is characteristic of
(A) Epidural bleed (B) Subdural bleed
(C) Subarachnoid bleed (D) Intracerebral bleed
098. The first earliest visible sign of decomposition is
(A) Distension of abdomen (B) Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa
(C) Marbling (D) Postmortem peeling of skin
099. In dry drowning death is due to
(A) Water logging of lungs (B) Spasm of larynx
(C) Cardiac inhibition (D) Ventricular fibrillation
100. What is lynching?
(A) Beating to death (B) Stoning to death
(C) Homicidal hanging (D) Suicidal attempt
101. Pugilistic attitude in burns is due to.
(A) Rigor mortis (B) Adipocere
(C) Coagulation of muscle proteins (D) Cadaveric spasm
102. The time limit for exhumation in India is
(A) 2 years (B) 5 years
(C) 7 years (D) No time limit
103. The length of the stab wound usually corresponds to
(A) Thickness of blade (B) Length of blade
(C) Width of blade (D) Force of impact
104. Preauricular sulcus is used for
(A) Determination of sex (B) Determination of age
(C) Determination of race (D) None of the above
105. In suspected air embolism the body cavity to be opened first is
(A) Head (B) Thorax
(C) Abdomen (D) Pelvis
106. Greenish discoloration of bruise is due to
(A) Haemoglobin (B) Haemosiderin
(C) Haematoidin (D) Bilirubin
107. Paraffin test is the test
(A) to find out gunpowder residue
(B) to differentiate saltwater and freshwater drowning
(C) to detect blood stain
(D) to detect seminal stain
108. Le facie sympathique indicates
(A) Antemortem hanging (B) Postmortem hanging
(C) Strangulation (D) Pseudo strangulation
109. Crocodile skin burns is seen in
(A) Thermal burns (B) Electrical burns
(C) Lightning burns (D) Bomb blast
110. For histopathological examination, visceral organs are preserved in
(A) 10% formalin (B) 20% formalin
(C) 30% formalin (D) 40% formalin
111. Dowry death is death within how many years of marriage
(A) 2 years (B) 5 years
(C) 7 years (D) 9 years
112. Which of the following organs is enlarged in starvation
(A) Liver (B) Gall bladder
(C) Spleen (D) Heart
113. How much constricting pressure is necessary to occlude jugular venous system to cause death in
hanging?
(A) 2 kg (B) 5 kg
(C) 15 kg (D) 30 kg
114. Rigor mortis is caused by
(A) Depletion of ATP (B) Coagulation of protein in muscles
(C) Gas formation (D) Solidification of fat
115. Which one of the following s a postmortem finding of antemortem burns
(A) Singeing of hair (B) Blackening of skin
(C) Blister formation (D) Carbon particles in trache
116. The cause of anemia in chronic kidney disease is
(A) Toxic effect of uremia on marrow precursor cells
(B) Deficiency of erythropoietin
(C) Iron deficiency anemia
(D) All of the above
117. The most common variety of psoriasis is called
(A) Plaque type (B) Guttate type
(C) Pustular type (D) None of the above
118. Patients benefited from a trial of NIV
(A) Respiratory acidosis (B) Respiratory alkalosis
(C) MI (D) Metabolic acidosis
119. Which among the following most common cause bilateral effusion?
(A) Pneumonia (B) TB
(C) Cardiac failure (D) Sub diaphragmatic disorders
120. The most common type of renal stone is
(A) Uric acid (B) Calcium phosphate
(C) Magnesium ammonium phosphate (D) Calcium oxalate
121. Which pneumonia occurs in local outbreaks in contaminated cooling towers in hotels hospitals
and industries
(A) Klebsiella (B) Staphylococcus
(C) Legionella (D) Mycoplasma
122. Drug induced hirsutism is cause by all except
(A) Phenytoin (B) Minoxodil
(C) Cyclosporine (D) Carbomezipine
123. Which of the following may be a direct consequence of severe magnesium deficiency
(A) Hypophosphatemia (B) Hypercalcemia
(C) Hypokalemia (D) Hyponatremia
124. XDR TB is defined as resistance to
(A) INH + Rifampicin
(B) INH + Rifampicin + Quinolones
(C) INH + Rifampicin + Quinolones + injectable second line drugs
(D) Quinolones alone
125. Which of the following porphyria syndrome was based on diagnosis of positive urine
porphobilinogen?
(A) Intermittent acute porphyria (B) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
(C) Protoporphyria (D) Porphyria cutanea tarda
126. Late onset Hemorrhagic cystitis in BMT due to
(A) BKV (polyoma virus) (B) CMV
(C) Mycoplasma (D) C. Difficle
127. Pulsus alterans is classically seen in cases of
(A) Severe left ventricular dysfunction (B) Pericarditis
(C) Severe aortic regurgitation (D) Tension pneunothor
128. Which of the following drugs are used for treatment of obesity?
(A) Locaserin (B) Liraglutide
(C) Linagliptin (D) Naltrexone
129. Schober test is done for
(A) Psoriasis (B) JRA
(C) Reiter’s disease (D) Ankylosing spondylitis
130. Which single culture positivity diagnostic for infective endocarditis?
(A) Coxiella burnetii (B) Kingella kingae
(C) Echinella (D) Streptococcus
131. Drug of choice for management of aortic dissection?
(A) Hydralazine (B) Phenoxybenzamine
(C) Beta blocker (D) Calcium channel blocker
132. Endemic syphilis is caused by
(A) Treponema pallidum pallidum (B) Treponema pallidum pertenue
(C) T pallidum subsp endemicum (D) T carateum
133. Most common cause of secondary hypertension?
(A) Renal parenchymal diseases
(B) Pheochromocytoma
(C) Erythropoietin usage
(D) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 17 hydroxylase deficiency
134. The term rapid cycling in bipolar disorder is used for patients who have _______ episodes of
either depression or mania in a given period
(A) ³ 5 (B) ³ 4
(C) £ 4 (D) £ 3
135. Not a feature of Behcet’s syndrome
(A) Myocarditis (B) Demyelination
(C) DVT (D) Arteritis
136. HTLV - 1 virus belongs to which genus?
(A) a retro virus (B) b retrovirus
(C) retro virus (D) d retro virus
137. Epsilon wave in electrocardiogram is seen in
(A) Hypotrhermia (B) Early repolarisation syndrome
(C) Tako- Tsubo syndrome (D) Arrythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia
138. The hallucinations in schizophrenia are typically
(A) Auditory (B) Visual
(C) Tactic (D) Olfactory
139. Which of the following is least involved in pathogenesis of RA
(A) PIP (B) DIP
(C) Wrist (D) Elbow
140. Which statement about the management of atrial fibrillation is false?
(A) A CHADS-VaSc > 2 is an indication for anticoagulation
(B) Atrial fibrillation > 48hrs is an indication for anticoagulation prior to cardioversion
(C) Dabigatran use is safe in patients with end stage renal disease
(D) Warfarin is preferred over antithrombin inhibitor in valvular AF
141. Major depression is defined as depressed mood on a daily basis for a minimum duration of
(A) 10 days (B) One month
(C) 2 weeks (D) 7 days
142. Which among the following is neurotoxic snake poison?
(A) Cobra (B) Russell viper
(C) Sea snakes (D) Pit viper
143. Which of the following antibiotics used in malaria?
(A) Piperacillin (B) Ofloxacin
(C) Azithromycin (D) Doxycyclin
144. Becks triad for cardiac tamponade diagnosis includes all except
(A) Prominent v wave in JVP (B) Soft heart sounds
(C) Hypotension (D) Prominent x descent
145. The most prevalent psychiatric illness in the general community is
(A) Schizophrenia (B) Anxiety disorder
(C) Depression (D) Anorexia nervosa
146. Most common cause of hemoptysis involving lung parenchyma
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Bronchial adenoma
(C) Lung abscess (D) Suppurative pneumonia
147. Turner syndrome is characterized by all except
(A) 47XXY (B) Streak ovaries
(C) Coarctation of aorta (D) Short stature
148. Extra intestinal manifestations of IBD are all except
(A) Peripheral arthritis (B) Primary sclerosing cholangitis
(C) Erythema nodosum (D) Bowel perforation
149. Coumarin induced skin necrosis is associated with institution of oral anticoagulants in patients
with
(A) Anti thrombin III deficiency (B) Protein C deficiency
(C) Factor VIII deficiency (D) Plasminogen deficiency
150. A feature of ITP common to both children and adult
(A) Occurrence after antecedent viral illness
(B) Presence of antibodies against glycoprotein IIb-IIIa complex
(C) Absence of splenomegaly
(D) Persistence of thrombocytopenia for more than 6months
151. The following are the uses of EEG except
(A) Diagnose seizure disorder and decide on medications
(B) Assess prognosis of seizure disorder
(C) Predict seizures in patients with head injury
(D) Confirm brain death
152. Occlusion of which of the following arteries typically produces Wallenberg syndrome?
(A) Basilar artery (B) Vertebral artery
(C) Superior cerebellar artery (D) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
153. Ventricular tachycardia occurs most commonly in all except
(A) Acuter MI (B) Chronic coronary artery disease
(C) Rheumatic valvular heart disease (D) Cardiomyopathy
154. Cholinergic muscarinic effects of organophsphorous poisoning is all except
(A) Bronchorrhoea (B) Miosis
(C) Dry mouth (D) Bradycardia
155. Major Jones criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic heart disease includes all except
(A) Chorea (B) Fever
(C) Carditis (D) Polyarthritis
156. A patient suffering from HIV infection and HAART therapy. He present with lipodystrophy.
Lab investigation suggestive of hypertriglyceridemia and hypercholesterolemia. Which of the
following drugs is most likely responsible for these effects ?
(A) Zidivudine (B) Ritonavir
(C) Nevirapine (D) Lamivudine
157. All are true about central hypothyroidism except,
(A) The most common cause is craniopharyngioma
(B) Treatment of done according to TSH level in plasma
(C) TSH level is not good indicator for diagnosis
(D) Before starting treatment checkout for adrenal insuffiency
158. Which of the following is a feature of celphos poisoning?
(A) Arrhythmia (B) Shock
(C) ARDS (D) All of the above
159. The ratio of the chest compression to rescue breath for alone rescure in CPR for all ages is?
(A) 30 : 2 (B) 15 : 2
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 30 : 1
160. Most common paroxysmal regular SVT is?
(A) Inappropriate sinus tachycardia (B) Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia
(C) Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (D) Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
161. A chronic alcoholic presenting with bleeding gums and petechiae is more likely to have
deficiency of?
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Vitamin C
(C) Thiamine (D) Pyridoxine
162. Significant weight loss is
(A) ³ 5% over 6-12 months (B) ³ 10% over 6-12 months
(C) ³ 5% over 6 weeks (D) ³ 10% over 6 weeks
163. ANCA antibodies seen in _______ ?
(A) Wagener’sgranulomatosis (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis (D) Psoriatic arthritis
164. Puff of smoke appearance on cerebral angiography is seen in
(A) ACA Aneurysm (B) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(C) Moya moya disease (D) Vein of gallen malformation
165. Drug of choice for treatment of type 2 Brittle Asthma is?
(A) b-adrenergic agonis (B) Inhaled corticosteroids
(C) Antileukotrines DM (D) Subcutaneous epinephrine
166. Which of the following anti tubercular drug is associated with hypothyroidism?
(A) Rifampicin (B) Pyrazinamide
(C) Ethionamide (D) Streptomycin
167. Chronic laxative abuse associated with
(A) hypokalemia (B) hypomagnesemia
(C) hypocalcemia (D) All of the above
168. Megaloblastic anemia due to folate deficiency from low folate diet develops within:
(A) 4 months (B) 1 years
(C) 4 years (D) 10 years
169. What blood group system antibodies are more commonly associated with delayed transfusion
reaction?
(A) Rh (B) ABO
(C) MNS (D) Lewis
170. What microorganisms grows well at 4° C and may result in transfusion-transmitted sepsis?
(A) staphylococcus aurous (B) Yersinia entercolitica
(C) staphylococcus epidermidis (D) bacilluscereus
171. All the hormones are known to influence fetal growth except
(A) Thyroxine (B) Growth hormone
(C) Glucocorticoids (D) Insulin
172. Growth hormone therapy is approved for all except
(A) GH deficiency (B) Turner syndrome
(C) Chronic renal failure (D) Constitutional growth delay
173. Upper limit of age for attainment of milestone – Standing alone
(A) 12 months (B) 14 months
(C) 18 months (D) 24 months
174. If bladder control is not established after this age, we call it enuresis.
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years
(C) 2 years (D) 5 years
175. Legal age for responsibility of crime is
(A) 18 years (B) 16 years
(C) 12 years (D) 14 years
176. All are causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis except
(A) RTA (B) Ureteral sigmoidostomy
(C) Diarrhea (D) Diabetic Keto acidosis
177. WHO criteria for severe acute malnutrition
(A) Wt/Ht < - 3SD (B) MUAC < 12.5 cm
(C) Wt/ Age < - 3SD (D) Ht/ Age < - 3SD
178. F100 diet provides at least
(A) 0.9 gm of protein/ 100ml (B) 2.5 to 3.0 g of protein/ 100ml
(C) 2gm of protein (D) 1.5 gm of protein/ 100ml
179. Vit D deficienct Rickets shows radiological evidence of healing within
(A) 4 weeks (B) 6 weeks
(C) 5 weeks (D) 8 weeks
180. Endemic selenium deficiency results in Keshan disease, a form of
(A) Skeletal myopathy (B) Cardiomyopathy
(C) Neurological disease (D) Skin disorder
181. Extended APGAR scores should be obtained every 5 minutes up to
(A) 15 minutes (B) 10 minutes
(C) 20 minutes (D) 30 minutes
182. Newborn is in cold stress if the axillary temperature is
(A) 36.5 – 37 C (B) 36.0 – 36.4 C
(C) 34 – 35.9 C (D) 32 – 34 C
183. DPT vials are stored in the _______ compartment of the refrigerator.
(A) Top racks of the main compartment (B) Middle racks of the main compartment
(C) Lower racks of the main compartment (D) Freezer compartment
184. Fifth disease is caused by
(A) Human herpes virus 6 (B) Human herpes virus 7
(C) Parvovirus B19 (D) Echovirus 16
185. All are features of functional constipation except
(A) Stool withholding behavior (B) Soft to hard stools in P/R examination
(C) Rectum larger than sigmoid (D) Recto-anal inhibitory reflex absent
186. Vit K dependent coagulation factors
(A) II (B) VIII
(C) Protein C (D) IX
187. Sweat chloride values in cystic fibrosis
(A) > 40mEq/L (B) > 60mEq/L
(C) > 30mEq/L (D) > 50mEq/L
188. Revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever – major criteria includes
(A) Subclinical carditis (B) Chorea
(C) Subcutaneous nodules (D) All of the above
189. Denys – Drash syndrome show mutations in the
(A) WT3 gene (B) PLCE 1 gene
(C) NPHS 2 gene (D) WT1 gene
190. Evaluation following 1st episode of urinary tract infection in infants includes all except
(A) DTPA (B) USG
(C) MCU (D) DMSA
191. Pubertal onset before what age is suggestive of precocious puberty in boys?
(A) 8 years (B) 9 years
(C) 9.5 years (D) 10.5 years
192. Long acting insulins include all except
(A) Glargine (B) Glulisine
(C) Detemir (D) Deglude
193. Ipsilateral rail road pattern of intracranial calcification is seen in
(A) Tuberous sclerosis (B) Neurofibramatosis
(C) Von HippelLindau disease (D) Sturge Weber syndrome
194. Diagnostic criteria of Hemophagocytic Lympho Histiocytosis includes
(A) Fibrinogen < 1.5g/L (B) Ferritin < 250 ug/L
(C) Platelets < 1.5 lakhs (D) Hepatomegaly
195. Edward syndrome
(A) Trisomy 18 (B) Trisomy 13
(C) Trisomy 21 (D) None of the above
196. Autosomal recessive inheritance
(A) Congenital erythropoietic porphyria (B) Erythropoietic protoporphyria
(C) Porphyria cutaneatarda (D) Variegate porphyria
197. ET tube size for preterm newborn < 1kg
(A) 2.5 (B) 3.0
(C) 2.0 (D) 3.0 - 3.5
198. Cryoprecipitate contains all except
(A) Factor VIII (B) Fibrinogen
(C) Fibronectin (D) Factor XII
199. Indications for renal biopsy in acute glomerulonephritis includes all except
(A) Normal levels of C3 in the acute stage (B) Normal C3 levels beyond 12 weeks
(C) Persistent proteinuria beyond 6 months (D) Gross hematuria persisting past 3-4 weeks
200. Most common cause of vasculitis in children
(A) Lupus nephritis (B) Henoch Schnolein purpura
(C) Kawasaki disease (D) Takaysu arteritis
Part 2
001. All are true about synovial fluid except:-
(A) Secreted by Type A synovial cells (B) Follows Non neutonian movement
(C) Contains hyaluronic acid (D) Viscosity is variable
002. Most common site of tuberculosis of spine is:-
(A) Thracolumber (B) Sacral
(C) Cervical (D) Lumbosacral
003. In axillary nerve injury, all are true except:-
(A) Wasting of deltoid (B) Weakness of extension of shoulder
(C) Numbness on lateral aspect of shoulder (D) Weakens of initiation of shoulder abduction
004. Montaggia feature is a:-
(A) Fracture of atlas
(B) Fracture of redial stuloid
(C) Fracture of proximal 1/3 of ulna with dislocation of proximal radioulnar joint
(D) Fracture of distal 1/3 of radius with dislocation of distal reduoulnar joint
005. Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by
(A) Presence of pus in anterior chamber (B) No tendency to recurrence
(C) Corneal hypoesthesia (D) Tendency to perforate
006. Painless loss of vision is seen in all except :
(A) Papilloedema (B) Papillitis
(C) CRAO (D) Angle closure glaucoma
007. Which retinal layer is most radio resistant:-
(A) RPE (B) Layers of roads and cones
(C) Bipolar cell layer (D) Ganglion cell layer
008. Bitemporal hemianopic field defect is characteristics of:-
(A) Glaucoma (B) Optic Neuritis
(C) Pituitary tumor (D) Retinal detachment
009. Which of the following is contraindicated in head injury?
(A) Ketamine (B) Halothane
(C) N2O (D) Propofol
010. Propofol infusion syndrome all except:-
(A) Occurs with infusion of propofol for 48 hrs or longer
(B) Occurs in critically ill patients
(C) Features are nausea and vomiting
(D) Features are cardiomyopathy, Hepatomegaly
011. Patients underwent inguinal lymph node dissection and drain was placed, on 10th day severe
bleeding occurs, what type of bleeding is this?
(A) Reactionary hemorrhage (B) Secondary
(C) Primary (D) Tertiary
012. Poor wound healing may be due to all of the following except:-
(A) Smoking (B) Excessive tension on sutures
(C) Young age (D) Diabetes
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 2 [Contd.
013. Hypertrophic scaring – true is:-
(A) Usually occurs across the flexural area (B) Does not improve with time
(C) Overgrows its boundaries (D) Develops months after surgery
014. In neonatal ICU, screening for hearing abnormalities is done using:-
(A) Transient evoked OAE (B) Distortion product OAE
(C) BERA (D) Automated OAE
015. Most common cause of acute otitis media in children is:-
(A) Steph. aures (B) H. influenzae
(C) Streptococcus pneumonie (D) Moraxella catarrhal
016. Eustachian tube function is is best assessed by:-
(A) VEMP (B) Politzer test
(C) Rhinomenometry (D) Pure tone audiograme
017. A 25 years old female mate with a car accident, her GCS was normal, Hear Rate 150/min, BP 90/
60 mmHg, Respiratory Rate of 20/min. On examination her JVP was raised, abdomen was not
tendor and she had ecchymosis over her anterior chest. Breath sounds were absent on one side.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
(A) Cardiac temponade (B) Tension pneumothorax
(C) Massive hemothorax (D) Pleural effusion
018. Following a blunt trauma abdomen, renal laceration with urinoma was there after 2 days. Patient
was stable no fever. How will you manage the patient?
(A) Percutaneous exploration and repair (B) Wait and watch
(C) Placing urinary stent (D) Percutaneous nephrostomy
019. Child with midline swelling in the neck most probable diagnosis:-
(A) Thyroglossal cyst (B) Thyroid
(C) Cystic hygroma (D) Dermoid cyst
020. True about branchial anomaly:-
(A) Cysts are more common than sinuses
(B) For sinuses, surgery is not always indicated
(C) Cysts presents with dysphagia and hoarseness of voice
(D) Most commonly due to 2nd branchial remnant
021. After on RTA adult patient was admitted in hospital with PR 116/min, RR 24/min, BP 120/80
mmHg, Mild anxious nature, how much amount of blood is lost in this patients?
(A) < 750ml (B) 750 - 1500ml
(C) 1500 - 2000ml (D) > 2000ml
022. Which of the following is the best guide for fluid resuscitation in shock?
(A) CVP (B) Urine output
(C) Pulse Rate (D) Pulse volume
023. Which of the following is not used for intravascular volume maintenance is :-
(A) Hydroxyethyl starch (B) Dextran
(C) Erythropoietin (D) Gelatin
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 3 P.T.O.
024. Comments site of extra gonadal germ cell tumor is:-
(A) Retroperitoneum (B) Sacrococcygeal region
(C) Pineal gland (D) Mediastinum
025. Indication of surgery in pulmonary TB:-
(A) Suspicion of malignancy (B) Cavitatory lesion with aspergilloma
(C) Massive hemoptysis (D) All of the above
026. Surgery for undescended testes is recommend at what age?
(A) 6 months (B) 12 months
(C) 24 months (D) 36 months
027. Triad of hemobilia includes all except;-
(A) Pain (B) Fever
(C) GI bleeding (D) Jaundice
028 Bilateral pulseless disease in upper limb is:-
(A) Aorto arteritis (B) Coarctation of aorta
(C) Fibromuscular dysplasia (D) Buerger disease
029. Removal of senescent RBC from circulation by spleen is called:-
(A) Culling (B) Pitting
(C) Filtering (D) Phagocytosis
030. Ectopic pancreatic tissue is present in all except:-
(A) Stomach (B) Meckel’s diverticulum
(C) Mesentery (D) Umbilicus
031. From the index finger infection goes to:-
(A) Thenar space (B) Hypothenar space
(C) Mid palmar space (D) Space of parona
032. Commonest presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is:-
(A) Painless enlargement of lymph node (B) Pruritus
(C) Fever (D) Leucocytosis
033. Not a premalignant ulcer:-
(A) Bazin ulcer (B) Paget’s disease of nipple
(C) Marjolin’s ulcer (D) Lupus vulgaris
034. Organ most commonly damage in penetrating injury of abdomen is:-
(A) Liver (B) Small intestine
(C) Large intestine (D) Duodenum
035. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:-
(A) Dubin Jhonson syndrome (B) Criggler najjar syndrome
(C) Criggler najjar syndrome-II (D) Gilbert syndrome
036. Most frequent site of accessory breast:-
(A) Axilla (B) Groin
(C) Buttock (D) Thigh
037. Lymphatic drainage of breast by all except:-
(A) Axillary (B) Supra clavicular
(C) Internal mammary (D) Mediastinal
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 4 [Contd.
038. A person has been brought in casualty with history of RTA. He had lost consciousness transiently
and gained consciousness but again become unconscious. Most likely, he is having brain
hemorrhage:-
(A) Intra cerebral (B) Sub arachnoid
(C) Subdural (D) Extra dural
039. Doxycycline is useful in infections caused by all of the following bacteria except
(A) Leptospira interrogans (B) Brucellla abortus
(C) Chlamydia ytachomatis (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
040. A 70 yrs old patient on warfarin for DVT has presented with raised INR of 6.5 and mild bleeding
from gum. Bleeding can be best treated by administration which one of following?
(A) Platelets (B) Protein c
(C) Thrombin (D) Vitamin k
041. Spirometer can be used to directly measure of the following?
(A) FRC (B) Total lung capacity
(C) Residual volume (D) Vital capcity
042. On clinical examination of 66 yrs old man has, a decreased in diastolic pressure, an increase
pulse pressure and diastolic murmur prominent over left sternal border. Of following which is
the most likely diagnosis ?
(A) Mitral stenosis (B) Pulmonary regurgitation
(C) Aortic regurgitation (D) Pulmonic stenosis
043. A 40 yrs old male presented with complain of exhaustion and shortness of breath. After compete
examination which of clinical observation led to putative diagnosis of cardiac temponade ?
(A) Bradycardia (B) Expiratory rales
(C) Pulsus paradoxus (D) Third heart sound
044. An 18 yrs old man with pernicious anemia lacks of intrinsic factor, which is necessary for
absorption of vit B12, is absorbed primarily in which portion of GIT?
(A) Stomach (B) Duodenum
(C) Jejunum (D) Ileum
045. In patient with profuse watery diarrhea caused by Escherichia. Coli, which of the following
sodium reabsorption pathway is inhibited by the enterotoxin?
(A) Electro neutral NaCl transport (B) Sodium – bile salt transport
(C) Sodium –glucose coupled co-transport (D) Sodium – hydrogen counter transport
046. Insulin independent glucose uptake occurs in which of the following sites?
(A) Adipose tissue (B) Brain
(C) Cardiac muscle (D) Skeletal muscle
047. Patient with hyperkalemic renal failure is given of glucose and insulin. The action of insulin
include which of following?
(A) Converting glucogen to glucose (B) Enhancing potassium entry in to cell
(C) Reducing urine formation (D) Increasing plasma amino acid concentration
048. A 22 year old male presents with complaints of severe itching & scaly lesions in groin for the past
month. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
(A) Trichophyton rubrum (B) Candida albicans
(C) Malassezia furfur (D) Candida glabrata
049. Herpes resistant to acyclovir is treated with:-
(A) Foscarnet (B) Lamivudine
(C) Valacylovir (D) Ganciclovir
050. A patient presented with scarring alopecia, thinned nails, hyperpigmented macular lesions over
the trunk & oral mucosa. The diagnosis is:-
(A) Psoriasis (B) Leprosy
(C) Lichen planus (D) Pemphigus
051. Best tumor marker for CA head of pancreas?
(A) CA 19 - 9 (B) CEA
(C) CA 125 (D) AFP
052. Hasselback’s triangle is bounded by the following, expect:
(A) Rectus addominis muscles (B) Transversus adbominis muscles
(C) Inferior epigastric atery (D) Inguinal ligament
053. Funicular hernia is type of;
(A) Direct inguinal hernia (B) Indirect inguinal hernia
(C) Femoral hernia (D) Umbilical hernia
054. Most frequent causes of acute retention of urine include all except:
(A) Meatal ulcer with scabbling in children (B) Haemorrhoidectomy
(C) Herniorraphy (D) Fecal impaction
055. Which is the earliest symptoms of benign hypertrophy of prostate?
(A) Frequency (B) Hematuria
(C) Incontinence (D) Strangury
056. A patient with a suspected renal tumor / mass in diagnosed by exfoliative urinary cytology.
Which of the following histological types is most likely to be diagnosed on urinary exfoliative
cytology.
(A) Transitional cell carcinoma
(B) Adenocarcinoma
(C) Well differentiated carcinoma (low grade)
(D) All three type can be easily detected on exfoliative cytology
057. A young patient presents to the emergency department with fever and right upper quadrant
pain clinical examination reveals obvious hepatomegaly but there is no jaundice. Ultrasound
reveals a solitary, homogeneous, hypoechoic lesion in right lobe, measuring 5 cm ´ 5 cm ´ 4 cm.
Test for hydatid disease were negative, which of the following is the best recommendation for
initial treatment?
(A) Multiple aspiration and antibiotics / antiamoebics
(B) Catheter drainage and antiamoebics/ antibiotics
(C) Antiamoebics / antibiotics alone
(D) Hepatectomy followed by antiamoebic / antibiotics
058. Nipple inversion occurs due to involvement of:
(A) Cooper’s ligament (B) Subareolar duct
(C) Parenchyma of breast (D) Sub dermal lymphatics
059. Hypoparathyroidism occurs as a result of:
(A) Idiopathic atrophy of parathyroid
(B) Following surgery
(C) Thyroiditis with secondary atrophy of parathyroid
(D) All of the above
060. Most common cause of addison’s disease in India :
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Post partum
(C) Auto immune (D) HIV
061. The vessel which need to be ligated in a patient with a bleeding peptic ulcer is:
(A) Gastroduodenal artery (B) Superior pancreatico-duodenal artery
(C) Left gastric artery (D) Left gastro epiploic artery
062. Recurrent obstruction, mass per rectum and diarrhea in child:
(A) Intussusceptions (B) Rectal prolapse
(C) Internal hernia (D) Hemorrhoids
063. Fleischner sign on barium study seen in:
(A) Ileocecal TB (B) Crohn’s disease
(C) Small bowel carcinoid (D) Typhoid
064. A 25 years old man presents with 3 days history of pain in the right lower abdomen and vomiting,
patient’s general condition is satisfactory and clinical examination reveals a tender lump in
right iliac fossa. The most appropriate management in this case would be:
(A) Immediate appendectomy (B) Exploratory laparotomy
(C) Ochsnsner - sherren regimen (D) External drainage
065. Best method to assess burns in 5 years old child caused by boiling water:
(A) Palm method (B) Rule of nine
(C) Lund and browder chart (D) Rule of one
066. IV formula for burn is:
(A) Total % body surface areas ´ weight ´ 4= volume of ml.
(B) Total % BSA ´ weight ´ 5 = volume of ml.
(C) Total % BSA ´ weight ´ 6 = volume of ml.
(D) Total % BSA ´ weight ´ 7 = volume of ml.
067. In which case pneumococcal vaccine is most effective?
(A) When given pre operatively (B) When given post operatively
(C) Against all strain of bacteria (D) Against gram negative bacteria
068. Which of the following causes least irritation of the peritoneal cavity?
(A) Bile (B) Blood
(C) Gastric enzyme (D) Pancreatic enzyme
069. Commonest cause of pyogenic liver abscess:
(A) Aspiration (B) Hematogenous spread from a distant site
(C) Direct contact (D) Lymphatic spread
070. A 35 years old female with amenorrhea, galactorrhea has bitemporal hemianopia, the most
probable diagnosis is:
(A) GNRH adenoma (B) Sellar chordoma
(C) Craniopharyngioma (D) Prolactin secreting pituitary micro adenoma
071. Mixed tumors of the salivary gland are:
(A) Most common in submandibular gland (B) Usually malignant
(C) Most common in parotid gland (D) Associated with calculi
072. The commonest site of oral cancer among Indian population:
(A) Tongue (B) Floor of mouth
(C) Alveobuccal complex (D) Lip
073. Virchow nodes are included in:
(A) Level-II (B) Level IV
(C) Level-III (D) Level-V
074. In LAHSHAL terminology for cleft lip and cleft palate, LAHSHAL denotes:
(A) Bilateral cleft palate only (B) Bilateral cleft lip only
(C) Bilateral cleft lip and palate (D) No cleft
075. Which one of the following is not a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the bifurcation
of aorta (leriche syndrome):
(A) Claudication of buttock and thigh (B) Claudication of the calf
(C) Sexual impotence (D) Gangrene localized to the feet
076. Commonest part of subclavian artery to be affected by stenosis:
(A) First part (B) Second part
(C) Third part (D) Equally affected
077. Contraindication for surgery in varicose veins:
(A) DVT (B) Multiple incompetent perforators
(C) Ulcer at ankle (D) None of the above
078. Commonest cause of unilateral pedal edema in India is:
(A) Filariasis (B) Post traumatic
(C) Post irradiation (D) Milroy’s disease
079. A young male presented with dyspnea, bleeding and petechial hemorrhage in the chest after two
days following fracture shaft of the femur right side most likely cause is:
(A) Air embolism (B) Fat embolism
(C) Pulmonary thromboembolism (D) Amniotic fluid thromboembolism
080. What is the most important aspect of management of burn injury in first 24 hours?
(A) Fluid resuscitation (B) Dressing
(C) Escharotomy (D) Antibiotics
081. Which is the best test for diagnosis of acute appendicitis in a pregnant female?
(A) Alder’s test (B) Aaron’s test
(C) Angell’s test (D) Mcburney’s test
082. After bilateral adrenalectomy patient developed gradual loss of vision with hyper pigmentation
of skin and headache likely cause is:
(A) Addison’s disease (B) Nelson’s syndrome
(C) Cushing syndrome (D) Hypopituitarism
083. Triple assessment for Ca breast includes:
(A) History, clinical examination and mammogram
(B) History, clinical examination and FNAC
(C) USG, mammogram and FNAC
(D) Clinical examination, mammogram and FNAC
084. A patient is advised to avoid strenuous activity following hernioraphy for a period of:
(A) 6 weeks (B) 6 months
(C) 3 weeks (D) 3 months
085. Most common nerve injured during hernia surgery:
(A) Ilioinguinal nerve (B) Iliohypogastric nerve
(C) Genitofemoral nerve (D) None of the above
086. Most common complication of splenectomy:
(A) OPSI
(B) Avascular necrosis of greater curvature of stomach
(C) Pancreatitis
(D) Atelectasis
087. Most common indication for operation in tuberculosis of intestine is:
(A) Obstruction (B) Perforation
(C) Mass abdomen (D) GI symptoms
088. Most common cause of generalized peritonitis in a 40 year old adult male is:
(A) Enteric perforation (B) Ruptured liver abscess
(C) Duodenal ulcer perforation (D) Perforated Ca stomach
089. If suture marks are to be avoided, skin sutures should be removed by:-
(A) 72 hours (B) 1 week
(C) 2 weeks (D) 3 weeks
090. Vanishing bile duct syndrome is seen in
(A) Chronic viral hepatitis (B) Sarcoidosis
(C) Lymphoma (D) Alcoholism
091. Which of the following is not true regarding ureteric colic
(A) Severity of pain increases with size of calculus
(B) Hematuria is invariably seen in all cases
(C) Pain may radiate to the anterior aspect of thigh
(D) Pain may radiate to tip of the penis
092. Specific marker for prostatic cancer is:
(A) Alkaline phosphatase (B) Prostate specific antigen
(C) Acid phosphatase (D) CA - 125
093. Commonest organism giving rise to urinary tract infection:
(A) E. Coli (B) Proteus
(C) Staphylococcus (D) Streptococcus
094. The Reynold’s pentad of fever, Jaundice right upper quadrant pain. Septic shock and mental
status change is typical of
(A) Cholangitis (B) Hepatitis
(C) Cholecytitis (D) Pancreatitis
095. Dancing carotid is seen in
(A) Thyrotoxicosis (B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) AV Fistula (D) Blow out carotid
096. Horner’s syndrome, all are true except:
(A) Miosis (B) Anhydrosis
(C) Hyperchrometic iris (D) Apparent exophthalmos
097. For reimplantation surgery, the detached limb or digit is best preserved in cold:-
(A) Glycerol (B) Distilled water
(C) Hypertonic saline (D) Isotonic saline
098. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is seen in:-
(A) Barret’s esophagus (B) Achalasia cardia
(C) Scleroderma (D) Menetrier’s disease
099. Commonest association seen in carcinoma gall bladder:-
(A) Peritoneal deposits (B) Duodenal infiltration
(C) Secondaries of liver (D) Cystic node involvement
100. Circumcision is contraindicated in:-
(A) Balanitis (B) Hypospadiasis
(C) Paraphimosis (D) Meatal stenosis
101. Complications of pre-eclampsia are all except-
(A) Post-datism (B) DIC
(C) Blindness (D) None of the above
102. In a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism, the safest drug to be used is-
(A) Propylthiourecil (B) Methimazole
(C) Carbimazole (D) Lugols iodine
103. Crying of fetus in-utero is called as-
(A) Vagitus uterinus (B) First cry
(C) Utero vaginalis (D) Vagitus vaginae
104. Betamethasone given to preterm patient for all except-
(A) Fetal lung maturity (B) Decrease intraventricular hemorrhage
(C) Prevents periventricular leukomalacia (D) Prevents PPH
105. Which is not a feature of inevitable abortion-
(A) Bleeding PV (B) Pain
(C) Closed internal Os (D) None of the above
106. Variable decelaration seen in-
(A) Head compression (B) Utero placental insuffiency
(C) Cord compression (D) None of the above
107. Test used to detect genetic abnormalities in embryo before transferring it to the uterus in IVF is-
(A) Embryo cell biopsy (B) CVS
(C) ICSI (D) All of the above
108. Twin peak sign is seen in-
(A) All monozygotic twins (B) Monochorionic twins
(C) Dichorionic twins (D) Siamese twins
109. Godell’s sign is-
(A) Dusky hue of the vestibule
(B) Softening of the cervix
(C) Increased pulsations felt through the lateral fornices
(D) Regular and rhythmic contractions during bimanual examination
110. After delivery caput succedaneum disappears-
(A) Within 24 - 48 hrs. (B) 3 - 5 days
(C) 5 - 7 days (D) 7 - 10 days
111. Average duration of first stage of labour in primigravida is –
(A) 6 hrs. (B) 12 hrs.
(C) 16 hrs. (D) 18 hrs.
112. Complications of hypothyroidism in pregnancy include all except -
(A) First trimester abortion (B) IUGR
(C) Cretinism (D) ARDS
113. A 32 yrs old female with mild hypertension two days after normal delivery she develops seizures,
headache. No proteinuria was there. On imaging she was found to have parasagittal infarction
and hematoma 3 ´ 2 cm. The most probable cause is –
(A) Eclampsia (B) Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
(C) Pituitary apoplexy (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
114. Engaging diameter in face presentation is –
(A) Sub occipitobregmatic (B) Mentovertical
(C) Submentobregmatic (D) None of the above
115. Which of the following is useful in first trimester screening for Down syndrome?
(A) Inhibin (B) Estradiol
(C) PAPP-A (D) Acetylcholinesterase
116. Amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping is generally done at-
(A) 8-10 weeks (B) 10-12 weeks
(C) 14-18 weeks (D) 19-22 weeks
117. True support of uterus are all except-
(A) Uterosacral ligament (B) Meckenrodt’s ligament
(C) Broad ligament (D) Levator ani
106. Variable decelaration seen in-
(A) Head compression (B) Utero placental insuffiency
(C) Cord compression (D) None of the above
107. Test used to detect genetic abnormalities in embryo before transferring it to the uterus in IVF is-
(A) Embryo cell biopsy (B) CVS
(C) ICSI (D) All of the above
108. Twin peak sign is seen in-
(A) All monozygotic twins (B) Monochorionic twins
(C) Dichorionic twins (D) Siamese twins
109. Godell’s sign is-
(A) Dusky hue of the vestibule
(B) Softening of the cervix
(C) Increased pulsations felt through the lateral fornices
(D) Regular and rhythmic contractions during bimanual examination
110. After delivery caput succedaneum disappears-
(A) Within 24 - 48 hrs. (B) 3 - 5 days
(C) 5 - 7 days (D) 7 - 10 days
111. Average duration of first stage of labour in primigravida is –
(A) 6 hrs. (B) 12 hrs.
(C) 16 hrs. (D) 18 hrs.
112. Complications of hypothyroidism in pregnancy include all except -
(A) First trimester abortion (B) IUGR
(C) Cretinism (D) ARDS
113. A 32 yrs old female with mild hypertension two days after normal delivery she develops seizures,
headache. No proteinuria was there. On imaging she was found to have parasagittal infarction
and hematoma 3 ´ 2 cm. The most probable cause is –
(A) Eclampsia (B) Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis
(C) Pituitary apoplexy (D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
114. Engaging diameter in face presentation is –
(A) Sub occipitobregmatic (B) Mentovertical
(C) Submentobregmatic (D) None of the above
115. Which of the following is useful in first trimester screening for Down syndrome?
(A) Inhibin (B) Estradiol
(C) PAPP-A (D) Acetylcholinesterase
116. Amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping is generally done at-
(A) 8-10 weeks (B) 10-12 weeks
(C) 14-18 weeks (D) 19-22 weeks
117. True support of uterus are all except-
(A) Uterosacral ligament (B) Meckenrodt’s ligament
(C) Broad ligament (D) Levator ani
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 11 P.T.O.
118. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy-
(A) Fallopian tube isthmus (B) Fallopian tube ampulla
(C) Cervix (D) Ovary
119. Poor prognosis in first trimester USG is-
(A) No fetal pole at 5 weeks (B) No cardiac activity at 5 weeks
(C) No gestational sac at 4 weeks (D) No cardiac activity at 8 weeks
120. Dilatation and evacuation is done for all except-
(A) Inevitable abortion (B) Incomplete abortion
(C) Threatened abortion (D) None of the above
121. If the rectal mucosa is injured, it is which degree of perineal tear –
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) Fourth
122. Amniotic fluid completely replaced in every
(A) 3 hours (B) 6 hours
(C) 9 hours (D) 12 hours
123. Most common heart disease in pregnancy-
(A) MS (B) AS
(C) MR (D) WPW
124. Palmer’s sign elicits:
(A) Intermittent uterine contractions (B) Softening of cervix
(C) Pulsations in formix (D) Compressibility of Isthmus
125. DIC is Common with:
(A) Placenta preevia (B) Abruptio Placenta
(C) Placenta Accerta (D) Battldore Placenta
126. EMACO regimen is for –
(A) CA cervix (B) CA endometrium
(C) CA ovary (D) Choriocarcinoma
127. Which ovarian tumor can present with menorrhagia?
(A) Dermoid cyst (B) Epithelial ovarian cancer
(C) Granulosa cell tumor (D) Yolk sac tumor
128. What is not used in PCOS?
(A) OC pills (B) Cyclical progesterones
(C) Myo inositol (D) Danazol
129. Tumor marker for germ cell malignancy are all except –
(A) LDH (B) Alkaline phosphatase
(C) AFP (D) CA 125
130. Investigation of choice for endometriosis –
(A) USG (B) CA 125
(C) MRI (D) Laparoscopy
131. Most common HPV type which causes cervical cancer?
(A) 6 (B) 11
(C) 16 (D) 18
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 12 [Contd.
132. Tamoxifen decreases the risk of which cancer?
(A) Breast (B) Endometrium
(C) Ovary (D) All of the above
133. Cryptomenorrhea occurs in –
(A) Fibroids (B) PCOS
(C) Imperforate hymen (D) All of the above
134. A 55 year old lady complaints of mass in the vagina which is reducible and increases on defecation.
Diagnosis is –
(A) Rectal prolapse (B) Uterine prolapse
(C) Cervical fibroid (D) Vaginal cancer
135. All are risk factors for CA endometrium except –
(A) Tamoxifen (B) Multiparity
(C) Obesity and hypertension (D) Late menopause
136. CA endometrium stage IA involves –
(A) Vagina (B) Cervical glands
(C) Cervical stroma (D) All of the above
137. IUCD having the longest life span is –
(A) Progestasert (B) Cu-T 380 A
(C) Mirena (D) Nova-T
138. Most common cause of primary amenorrhea is –
(A) Constitutional / idiopathic (B) RMKH syndrome
(C) Ovarian dysgenesis (D) None of the above
139. Drug of choice for anovulatory infertility is –
(A) Clomifene citrate (B) Letrozole
(C) Anastrozole (D) Gonadotropin
140. Contraception of choice for woman with heart disease is-
(A) OC pills (B) IUCD
(C) Barrier (D) Tubal ligation
141. A 55 years old lady presenting to OPD with post-menopausal bleeding for 3 months has a 2 ´ 2
cm nodule on the anterior lip of cervix. The most appropriate investigation to be done subsequently
is-
(A) Pap smear (B) Punch biopsy
(C) Endocervical‘ curettage (D) Colposcopy
142. Most common type of uterine polyp is:
(A) Mucosal polyp (B) fibroid
(C) placental polyp (D) None of the above
143 Living ligature of uterus is-
(A) Endometrium (B) Middle layer of myometrium
(C) Inner layer of myometrium (D) Parametrium
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 13 P.T.O.
144. A 19 year old patient presents to your office with primary amenorrhea .she has normal breast
and pubic hair development, but the uterus and vagina are absent. Diagnostic possibility includes:-
(A) Testicular feminization syndrome (B) Gonadal dysgenesis
(C) Mullerian agenesis (D) Klinefelter syndrome
145. An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua, diagnosed on HSG. Next treatment of
choice is –
(A) IVF (B) Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
(C) Tuboplasty (D) Hydrotubation
146. The distribution of 500 individuals with a particular disease is a right skewed distribution. The
sampling distribution of the sample mean (of size 50) will be
(A) Approximately normally distributed (B) Skewed
(C) No general statement can be made (D) None of the above
147. Correlation between X and Y is Positive when
(A) X increases & Y increases (B) X increases & Y decreases
(C) X decreases & Y decreases (D) (A) and (C)
148. Population growth is said to be less than adequate requirement when NRR is:
(A) < 1 (B) = 1
(C) > 1 (D) = 0
149. Birth rate is-
(A) live birth /1000 mid-year population
(B) Birth / 1000 mid-year population
(C) Live birth / 10000 mid-year population
(D) Live birth / 10000 population of reproductive age Group (15-45 year)
150. For a population of 10000, sex ratio of more than 1000 means-
(A) Males less than 500 (B) Females are less than 500
(C) Males are less than 5000 (D) Females are less than 5000
151. In a town of 36000 people, there are 1200 live births, and 60 infants death. What is the IMR?
(A) 50 (B) 25
(C) 10 (D) 5
152 Copper-T is preferably inserted postnatal after-
(A) 2 weeks (B) 4 weeks
(C) 5 weeks (D) 8 weeks
153. How much ethinylestradiol does the new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain
(IN MICROGRAMS)-
(A) 20 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 35
154. Demographic transition is-
(A) No gap between birth rate and death rate
(B) High difference between CBR and CDR
(C) C. Gap in sex %
(D) Gap in extreme age
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 14 [Contd.
155. Increased incidence of ectopic is associated with all except
(A) IUD (B) Combined oral pills
(C) Menstrual regulation (D) Safe period method
156 The medical termination of pregnancy act does not protect act of termination of pregnancies
after
(A) 20 weeks (B) 24 weeks
(C) 28 weeks (D) 30 weeks
157. Which of the fertility rates have midyear population as denominator?
(A) Crude birth rate (B) General fertility rate
(C) General marital fertility rate (D) All of the above
158. Barrier methods are all except
(A) diaphragm (B) foam tablets
(C) vaginal sponge (D) lippes loop
159. Under medical termination of pregnancy act of India, permission of MTP has to be given by
(A) wife only (B) Husband only
(C) Both wife and husband (D) Guardian
160. Contraceptive efficacy is measured by
(A) Pearl index only
(B) Pearl index and life table analysis
(C) Life table analysis and couple protection rate
(D) Pearl index and couple protection rate
161. Eligible couple per 1000 population in India is
(A) 50-70 (B) 100-120
(C) 150-180 (D) 200-250
162. Besides pregnancy the oral contraceptive protect against
(A) Fibro adenoma Brest (B) Iron deficiency anemia
(C) Ovarian cancer (D) Hepatocellular cancer
163. Definition of low vision
(A) Best corrected 6/60 to 3/60 (B) Best corrected 6/60 to 6/18
(C) Best corrected 1/60 to 3/60 (D) Best corrected 6/60 to 1/60
164. Which disease is transmitted by soft tick?
(A) KFD (B) Relapsing fever
(C) Tick typhus (D) Tularemia
165. Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is.
(A) MMR (B) Hep B
(C) Hep A (D) Measles
166. All are zoonosis except
(A) AIDS (B) Plague
(C) Taeniasis (D) Hydatidosis
167. Equal interview time eliminates
(A) Berksonian bias (B) Recall bias
(C) Selection bias (D) Interviewer bias
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 15 P.T.O.
168. Most cost effective family planning is
(A) Vasectomy (B) Tubectomy
(C) Copper T (D) Oral pills
169. Diphtheria like colitis in ascending & transverse colon caused by
(A) Lead (B) Arsenic
(C) Cadmium (D) Mercury
170. About Delphi method
(A) Formation of a team to undertake and monitor a Delphi on a given subject.
(B) Selection of one or more panels to participate in the exercise. Customarily, the panelists are
experts in the area to be investigated.
(C) Development of the first round Delphi questionnaire
(D) All are true
171. Random allocation of individuals to treatment and control groups in a randomized clinical trial
(A) Ensures that assignment to the groups occurs by chance only
(B) Ensures that the treatment and control groups are identical in all respects except the
intervention
(C) Eliminates selection bias at the start of the trial
(D) Eliminates compliance bias
172. Holder process for pasteurization is
(A) 65 degrees for 60 minutes (B) 45 degrees for 60 minutes
(C) 65 degrees for 30 minutes (D) 40 degrees for 60 minutes
173 The most important element of ethical research on human subjects is:
(A) Beneficence (B) Justice
(C) A methodologically sound study design (D) Informed consent
174. The requirements for an effective surveillance system include:
(A) algorithm (B) Staff members
(C) A sampling frame (D) All of the above
175. A good surveillance system should provide information about:
(A) Who is being infected. (B) Where the infected individuals are
(C) How rapidly infection is spreading (D) All of the above
176. The following is true about prevalence and incidence:
(A) Both are rates (B) Prevalence is a rate but incidence is not
(C) Incidence is a rate but prevalence is not (D) Both are not rates
177. Isolation not useful for all except.
(A) Mumps (B) Measles
(C) Hepatitis A (D) Pneumonic plague
178. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by
(A) Flea (B) Mite
(C) Tick (D) Louse
179. Bad prognosis in PEM is indicated by all except,
(A) keratomalecia (B) hypothermia
(C) hepatomegaly (D) hypoalbuminemia
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 16 [Contd.
180. Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after silent period of
(A) 18 years (B) 20 years
(C) 28 years (D) 30 years
181. The incubation period of Measles is:
(A) 3 days (B) 10 days
(C) 21 days (D) 30 days
182. Dengue Shock Syndrome is characterized by following except
(A) Hepatomegaly (B) Pleural effusion
(C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Decreased haemoglobin
183. Laboratory report of disease sent as “L-form” in IDSP is:
(A) syndromic diagnosis (B) Presumptive diagnosis
(C) Confirmed diagnosis (D) Active surveillance
184. Vision 2020 includes excepts
(A) Onchocerciasis (B) Cataract
(C) Trachoma (D) Epidemic conjunctivitis
185. Which of the following is not DDT-resistant?
(A) Musca domestica (B) Phlebotamus
(C) Culex mosquito (D) Anopheles stephensi
186. The transmission of filariasis is an example of:
(A) Propagative transmission (B) Cyclic transmission
(C) Cyclo-development transmission (D) Cyclo-propagative transmission
187. Specific content in Malaria vaccine is:
(A) Gamatocytic protein (B) Polysaccharide sheath
(C) Sporozoite protein (D) lipoprotein envelop
188. ASHA is located at:
(A) Sub Centre (B) PHC
(C) CHC (D) Village
189. In UNICEF “GOBI COMPAGINE letter “O” stands for
(A) Oral contraceptive (B) Oral rehydration therapy
(C) Obesity (D) Occupational hazards
190. WHO funds which of the following programme in India?
(A) RNTCP (B) National leprosy eradication programme
(C) Janani surkhsha yogana (D) National old age pension plan
191. Ujjwala scheme is for prevention of
(A) Child abuse (B) Child trafficking
(C) Child labour (D) Child marriage
192. Janani Suraksha Yojana includes?
(A) Tetanus immunization (B) Institutional deliveries
(C) Iron supplementation (D) Abortions
193. Helpline for AIDS can be reached by dialing:
(A) 1079 (B) 1091
(C) 1098 (D) 1097
CMS-2 - MASTER ] 17 P.T.O.
194. Integrated Child Protection Scheme is under which ministry?
(A) Health & Family Welfare (B) Women & Child Development
(C) Home Affairs (D) Labour
195. Link weaker scheme are in which National health programme?
(A) RNTCP (B) NACP
(C) NLEP (D) ICDS
196. Epidemic after disaster are caused by all except:
(A) Leptospirosis (B) Rickttsipsis
(C) Leishmaniasis (D) H. pylori
197. Dose of vitamin A prophylaxis in 6-11 months old child is :
(A) 30,000 IU (B) 60,000 IU
(C) 1,00,00 IU (D) 2,00,00 IU
198. Most recent Immerging Global health threats to human
(A) Air pollution and climate change (B) Antimicrobial resistance
(C) Non communicable disease (D) None of the above
199. TeCHO+ is implemented in health care system by
(A) WHO (B) UNICEF
(C) Government of Gujarat (D) Government of India
200. Bioterrorism group – A agent is
(A) Q fever (B) Thyphus fever
(C) Anthrax (D) Brucellosis
