Q.1 The apex of the heart is formed mostly by the:
Ans 1. left ventricle
2. right atrium
3. left atrium
4. central ventricle
Q.2 Which of the following is the largest cranial nerve?
Ans 1. Cranial VI
2. Cranial nerve X
3. Cranial nerve VII
4. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)
Section : Anatomy
and Physiology
Q.3 Tarsals of the ankles are examples of which type of bone?
Ans 1. Short bones
2. Sesamoid bones
3. Long bones
4. Pneumatic bones
Q.4 How many bones are there in the lower extremities in a
normal adult?
Ans 1. 58
2. 62
3. 64
4. 60
Q.5 What is the approximate maximum air volume in the lung for
normal healthy adult?
Ans 1. 2400 mL
2. 3000 mL
3. 300 mL
4. 6000 mL
Q.6 Carpometacarpal joint is an example of which of the
following types of joints?
Ans 1. Hinge
2. Ball and socket
3. Pivot
4. Saddle
Q.7 Which of the following layers of the adrenal gland secretes
glucocorticoids?
Ans 1. Adrenal medulla
2. Zona glomerulosa
3. Zona reticularis
4. Zona fasciculata
Q.8 Which of the following is an example of ball-and-socket
joints?
Ans 1. Skull joint
2. Thumb joint
3. Hip joint
4. Elbow joint
Q.9 What is the synonym of Clotting Factor II?
Ans 1. Christmas factor
2. Fibrinogen
3. Calcium
4. Prothrombin
Q.10 Which of the following quadriceps femoris muscles help in
flexion of the thigh?
Ans 1. Rectus femoris
2. Vastus medialis
3. Vastus intermedius
4. Vastus lateralis
Q.11 Which of the following parts of the brain controls body
temperature?
Ans 1. Hypothalamus
2. Hippocampus
3. Pons
4. Amygdala
Q.12 How many cervical nerves are there in the spinal cord?
Ans 1. 5
2. 9
3. 8
4. 12
Q.13 The elbow is an example of a ______ joint.
Ans 1. hinge
2. pivot
3. condyloid
4. planar
Q.14 The expanded ends of a long bone are called:
Ans 1. Tubercle
2. Epicondyle
3. Diaphysis
4. Epiphyses
Q.15 The posterior pituitary consists mainly of ______.
Ans 1. Beta cells
2. C cells
3. T cells
4. Neuronal projections
Q.16 Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted from the
anterior pituitary?
Ans 1. Adrenocorticotropin
2. Prolactin
3. Human growth hormone
4. Oxytocin
Q.17 A ______ is a cell that manufactures and stores the protein
keratin.
Ans 1. keraticellyte
2. keracyte
3. keratinocyte
4. keratinolyte
Q.18 Which of the following is an example of synarthrosis joint?
Ans 1. Fibrous joints of the skull sutures
2. Wrist joints
3. Hip joints
4. Elbow joint
Q.19 Which of the following hormones inhibits release of growth
hormone?
Ans 1. Dopamine
2. Somatotropin
3. Somatostatin
4. Thyrotropin inhibiting hormone
Q.20 Oxytocin is mainly involved in which of the following
functions?
Ans 1. Motor skills
2. Childbirth and lactation
3. Growth and mental ability
4. Regulation of blood pressure
Q.1 Which of the following is NOT related to MMR vaccine?
Ans 1. Rubella
2. Measles
3. Rickets
4. Mumps
Q.2 Who among the following devised the autoclave used for
sterilisation?
Ans 1. Charles Chamberland
2. Robert Koch
3. Edward Jenner
4. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Section : Microbiology
Q.3 Widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of
which of the following pathogenic
microorganisms?
Ans 1. E. Coli
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Haemophilus influenza
4. Salmonella typhi
Q.4 The causative agent of Lyme disease is:
Ans 1. Rickettsia prowazekii
2. Alphavirus
3. Borrelia burgdorferi
4. Trypnosoma brucei gamiense
Q.5 Which of the following microorganisms causes gonorrhoea?
Ans 1. Stylus gonorrhoeae
2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
3. Stereotyoist gonorrhoeae
4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 810592222
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 What is the optimum temperature in an autoclave to achieve
sterility?
Ans 1. 121 °C for 30 minutes
2. 60 °C for 30 minutes
3. 34 °C for 30 minutes
4. 27 °C for 20 minutes
Q.7 Which of the following involves the introduction of
antibodies into the body from an animal
or person already immune to the disease?
Ans 1. Active immunity
2. Artificially acquired passive immunity
3. Naturally acquired passive immunity
4. Innate immunity
Q.8 Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by:
Ans 1. IgG
2. IgE
3. IgM
4. IgA
Q.9 Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
Ans 1. Cocci
2. Clusters
3. Bacillus
4. Spirochetes
Q.10 Which of the following is true about IgM?
Ans 1. It is not produced by vertebrates.
2. It forms the initial immune response.
3. It is not an isotypes of antibody.
4. It is the smallest antibody.
Section : Sociology
Q.1 As per 2011 census survey, ______ per cent of the population
of India suffer from disability
(in the identified 8 categories).
Ans 1. 2.21
2. 1.2
3. 2.5
4. 3.1
Q.2 Who is considered as the father of sociology?
Ans 1. Auguste Comte
2. Maclver
3. Emile Durkheim
4. Kingsley Davis
Q.3 Which of the following is NOT a stage of socialisation?
Ans 1. Oral stage
2. Despair stage
3. Oedipal stage
4. Latency stage
Q.4 Caste status is an example of which of the following status?
Ans 1. Monetary
2. Ascribed
3. Achieved
4. General
Q.5 The general process of acquiring culture is referred to as:
Ans 1. Dispersion
2. Diffusion
3. Socialisation
4. Acculturation
Q.6 Socialisation is a process involving:
Ans 1. declaring everything as belonging to society
2. setting up the social norms
3. Inducting people to adapt in society
4. Normalisation of criminals and anti-social
elements
Q.7 Who said that man is a social animal?
Ans 1. Maclver
2. Auguste Comte
3. Aristotle
4. Ginseberg
Q.8 Any small group marked by continuous close interaction of a
highly personal and
emotionally supportive nature is called a/an ______ group.
Ans 1. reference
2. secondary
3. primary
4. interest
Q.9 Polyandry means:
Ans 1. a form of marriage that joins one female with more than one
male
2. a form of marriage that joins one male with
more than one female
3. a form of marriage that joins one female with
one male
4. getting married in the same blood group
Q.10 Providing education to the school, college and street
children on prevention of drug
addiction is an example of ______ prevention.
Ans 1. primordial
2. tertiary
3. primary
4. secondary
Q.1 Lack of oxygen in the blood stream is called:
Ans 1. Hypoxaemia
2. Cyanosis
3. Hypoxia
4. Anoxaemia
Q.2 Under normal circumstances, concentration of oxygen in
inspired air is about _______ percent.
Ans 1. 100
2. 6
3. 29
4. 21
Section : Nursing
Foundations
Q.3 As per Kubler-Ross' stages of grieving, refusing to believe
that loss is happening/has
happened is called:
Ans 1. Bargaining
2. Denial
3. Acceptance
4. Depression
Q.4 Which of the following organs is one of the primary
regulator of body fluid and electrolyte
balance?
Ans 1. Intestine
2. Kidney
3. Stomach
4. Lungs
Q.5 What is the approximate normal level of haematocrit/packed
cell volume in men?
Ans 1. 5 % to 15 %
2. 60 % to 70 %
3. 40 % to 50 %
4. 20 % to 35 %
Q.6 Which of the following tests need to be performed before
radial artery cannulation to
evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency?
Ans 1. Coop's test
2. Allen's test
3. Capillary refill test
4. Buergeor's test
Q.7 A group of symptoms is known as:
Ans 1. Signs
2. Syndrome
3. clinical manifestations
4. group symptoms
Q.8 Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration is called:
Ans 1. Hypoventilation
2. Orthopnoea
3. Hyperventilation
4. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Q.9 A bedridden patient is having intact skin at the sacral
region, and the symptoms of
warmness, pain and firm skin at the site. What is the stage of
bedsore?
Ans 1. Stage III
2. Stage II
3. Stage I
4. Stage IV
Q.10 Following death, the subjective response experienced by the
surviving loved ones is called:
Ans 1. bereavement
2. mourning
3. compliance
4. grief
Q.11 Which of the following electrolytes does insulin help to
move into the cells?
Ans 1. Bicarbonates
2. Chloride
3. Carbonates
4. Potassium
Q.12 Temperature of 98.7 degree Fahrenheit is approximately
equal to ______ degree Celsius.
Ans 1. 38.16
2. 37.56
3. 37.06
4. 36.52
Q.13 Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure is
called:
Ans 1. pulse range
2. pulse length
3. pulse deficit
4. pulse pressure
Q.14 Formula to calculate BMI is:
Ans 1. weight in kg divided by square of height in metres
2. weight in kg divided by height in feet
3. weight in kg divided by square of height in
feet
4. weight in kg divided by height in metres
Q.15 Which of the following equipment is used for the
examination of the ear?
Ans 1. Ophthalmoscope
2. Laryngoscope
3. Otoscope
4. Proctoscope
Q.16 The specific gravity of the urine normally ranges
approximately from:
Ans 1. 1.8 to 2.0
2. 1.5 to 1.8
3. 0.75 to 1.00
4. 1.01 to 1.025
Q.17 Insertion of a tube inside the stomach through the nose is
called nasogastric ______.
Ans 1. Irrigation
2. Intubation
3. Extubation
4. Urigation
Q.18 Intravenous solution of 0.45% sodium chloride is a/an
______ solution.
Ans 1. colloid
2. hypertonic
3. hypotonic
4. isotonic
Q.19 ______ is the process of introducing a disinfectant
solution to the internal environment of the
body when someone passes away.
Ans 1. Embacterium
2. Revaccination
3. Embalming
4. Rinsing
Q.20 ______ enema is also called antispasmodic enema.
Ans 1. Cold
2. Carminative
3. Antihelminthic
4. Oil
Q.21 HbA1c (glycated haemoglobin) value reflects the blood glucose
levels in the past ______
months.
Ans 1. 1
2. 7
3. 3
4. 9
Q.22 The sudden fall of temperature from high to normal within a
few hours is called:
Ans 1. Hypothermia
2. Lysis
3. True crisis
4. False crisis
Q.23 In a healthy individual, weighing 70 kg at rest, the stroke
volume is about:
Ans 1. 150 ml
2. 100 ml
3. 50 ml
4. 70 ml
Q.24 The fever in which temperature remains above normal
throughout the day and fluctuate
more than 2 degree Fahrenheit is known as ______ fever.
Ans 1. iysis
2. remittent
3. inverted
4. intermittent
Q.25 The site of pulse in the neck is called:
Ans 1. Temporal
2. Radial
3. Carotid
4. Popliteal
Q.26 The gradual decrease in body's temperature after death is
called:
Ans 1. stiff mortis
2. algor mortis
3. rigor mortis
4. livor mortis
Q.27 The discolouration that appears in the dependent areas of
the body after death is called:
Ans 1. rigor mortis
2. livor mortis
3. algor mortis
4. stiff mortis
Q.28 Kussmaul breathing is associated with:
Ans 1. Heart failure
2. Diabetic ketoacidosis
3. Bronchial asthma
4. Atelectasis
Q.29 Absorptive dressings are intended to:
Ans 1. absorb nutrients for the wound
2. remove drainage from the bed sore
3. gather moisture from the atmosphere to keep
the wound cool
4. absorb blood from veins
Q.30 Which of the following medication orders are for every
other day?
Ans 1. qod
2. qh
3. qd
4. bid
Q.31 A patient is to receive 1000 mL of IV fluid in 6 hours. The
drop factor is 15 drops per mL. At
approximately how many drops per minute should the flow rate be
set?
Ans 1. 42 drops/min
2. 21 drops/min
3. 55 drops/min
4. 33 drops/min
Q.32 In which of the following positions is the patient at
greatest risk of shearing force?
Ans 1. Semi-Fowler's position
2. Lying supine in bed
3. Trendelenburg position
4. High-Fowler's position
Q.33 Movement of the joints away from the mid-line of the body
is called:
Ans 1. Addiction
2. Adhesion
3. Adduction
4. Abduction
Q.34 What does the term Cheilosis mean?
Ans 1. Cracking of lips
2. Bad breath
3. Inflammation of the gums
4. Inflammation of the tongue
Q.35 Breathing that is normal in rate and depth is called:
Ans 1. bradypnoea
2. tachypnoea
3. apnoea
4. eupnoea
Q.36 Stiffness in the body that occurs after 2 to 4 hrs after
death is called:
Ans 1. livor mortis
2. algor mortis
3. stiff mortis
4. rigor mortis
Q.37 Which of the following is NOT an example of dry cold
application?
Ans 1. Cold compress
2. Ice pack
3. Ice cradle
4. Ice bag
Q.38 The main intracellular cation is:
Ans 1. Zinc
2. Chloride
3. Potassium
4. Halide
Q.39 Inflammation of the oral mucosa is known as:
Ans 1. Gingivitis
2. Glossitis
3. Parotitis
4. Stomatitis
Q.40 Which of the following medication orders is administered
immediately and only once?
Ans 1. Single order
2. PRN order
3. Stat order
4. Standing order
Q.1 Koplik's spots are the clinical feature of:
Ans 1. Cholera
2. Chickenpox
3. Measles
4. Pertussis
Q.2 One CHC covers a population of ______ in hilly areas.
Ans 1. 80000
2. 10000
3. 30000
4. 50000
Section : Community
Health Nursing-I
Q.3 The number of all current cases of a disease at one point of
time is called:
Ans 1. period prevalence
2. point incidence
3. point prevalence
4. time prevalence
Q.4 In which year was the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)
introduced?
Ans 1. 2006
2. 2008
3. 2007
4. 2005
Q.5 Hardness of water is expressed as:
Ans 1. PPL
2. mg/L
3. mEq/ML
4. mg%
Q.6 The route of administration of hepatitis B vaccine is:
Ans 1. Intramuscular
2. Subcutaneous
3. Intrathecal
4. Intradermal
Q.7 The constant presence of a disease or infection within a
given geographic area is called:
Ans 1. Sporadic
2. Endemic
3. Pandemic
4. Epidemic
Q.8 The denominator used to calculate crude birth rate is:
Ans 1. school-going population
2. live births in that year
3. mid-year population in that year
4. population aged 18 years or above
Q.9 What was the theme of World Health Day 2019?
Ans 1. Halt the rise: beat diabetes
2. Healthy heart beat: healthy blood pressure
3. Food safety
4. Universal health coverage: everyone,
everywhere
Q.10 What is the minimum contact time required for the
chlorination of water to take place?
Ans 1. 10 minutes
2. 90 minutes
3. 60 minutes
4. 30 minutes
Section : Nutrition
Q.1 Which of the following digestive enzymes present in gastric
juice is primarily responsible
for breaking down proteins?
Ans 1. Trypsin
2. Pepsin
3. Peptidases
4. Chymotrypsin
Q.2 Emulsification of lipids in the small intestine requires:
Ans 1. gastric lipase
2. Pepsin
3. pancreatic lipase
4. bile salts
Q.3 Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the
body?
Ans 1. Fat
2. Zinc
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin D
Q.4 Which of the following is precursor to vitamin A?
Ans 1. Pyridoxine
2. Beta-carotene
3. Thiamine
4. Retinol
Q.5 An average healthy person with no diseases should ideally
get ______ of his/her daily calorie
requirements from healthy fats.
Ans 1. 50 % to 60 %
2. 70 % to 80 %
3. 20 % to 30 %
4. 5 % to 10 %
Q.6 In which organ does the absorption of iron takes place?
Ans 1. Colon
2. Duodenum in small intestine
3. Liver
4. Stomach
Q.7 Vitamin B1 is also known as:
Ans 1. Pyridoxine
2. Thiamine
3. Riboflavin
4. Niacin
Q.8 Which of the following trace elements is essential for the
synthesis of insulin?
Ans 1. Cobalt
2. Iron
3. Zinc
4. Sodium
Q.9 Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
Ans 1. Niacin
2. Thiamine
3. Pyridoxine
4. Valine
Q.10 Calories generated per gram of fat is approximately:
Ans 1. 4 Kcals
2. 15 Kcals
3. 1 Kcals
4. 9 Kcals
Q.1 Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?
Ans 1. Ranitidine
2. Famotidine
3. Pantoprazole
4. Sucralfate
Q.2 Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of which of
the following hormones?
Ans 1. Antidiuretic
2. Glucagon
3. Insulin
4. Renin
Section : Medical
Surgical Nursing
Q.3 The name of the surgery in which there is removal of
duodenum, head of pancreas, gall
bladder and bile ducts is called:
Ans 1. appendectomy
2. lumpectomy
3. discectomy
4. pancreatoduodenectomy
Q.4 Bell's Palsy is a disorder of the ______ cranial nerve.
Ans 1. 3rd
2. 7th
3. 9th
4. 5th
Q.5 The most common side effect of thrombolytic therapy is:
Ans 1. metabolic abnormalities
2. internal bleeding
3. compartment syndrome
4. acute renal failure
Q.6 Which type of solution causes water to shift from the cells
into the plasma?
Ans 1. Alkaline
2. Hypotonic
3. Acidic
4. Hypertonic
Q.7 An individual with which of the following blood groups is a
universal donor?
Ans 1. A -ve
2. B +ve
3. AB +ve
4. O -ve
Q.8 The loss of urine resulting from cognitive or environmental
factors is the manifestation of:
Ans 1. overflow incontinence
2. functional incontinence
3. urge incontinence
4. reflex incontinence
Q.9 While assessing the level of consciousness of a patient
using Glasgow Coma Scale, which
of the following score represents the best motor response from
the patient?
Ans 1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
Q.10 The loss of ability to recognise objects is called:
Ans 1. Dysarthria
2. Alexia
3. Ataxia
4. Agnosia
Q.11 Which of the following is glandular tissue cancer?
Ans 1. Liposarcoma
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Neuroblastoma
4. Osteogenic sarcoma
Q.12 The cell-mediated immunity is carried out by:
Ans 1. Red blood cells
2. T lymphocytes
3. B lymphocytes
4. CD4 cells
Q.13 The lateral S-shaped curvature of the spine is called:
Ans 1. Scoliosis
2. Musculosis
3. Kyphosis
4. Lordosis
Q.14 ______ is a radiological examination using a minimal and
safe amount of radiation to allow
visualisation of breast masses.
Ans 1. Computed tomography scan
2. Lymphangiogram
3. Angiogram
4. Mammogram
Q.15 Barium enema is used mainly for radiological examination of
the:
Ans 1. brain
2. colon
3. heart
4. oral cavity
Q.16 While doing colostomy irrigation, the height of the
irrigation bag should be around:
Ans 1. 18 inches
2. 24 inches
3. 12 inches
4. 36 inches
Q.17 Which one of the following procedures is used to correct
otosclerosis?
Ans 1. Myringoplasty
2. Myringotomy
3. Mastoidectomy
4. Stapedectomy
Q.18 The term pyrosis is related to:
Ans 1. Heartburn
2. Pus formation
3. Dysphagia
4. Dyspepsia
Q.19 The drugs used to constrict the pupils are:
Ans 1. mydriatics
2. sulphonamides
3. antibiotics
4. miotics
Q.20 Which of the following parts of an eye alters the size of
the pupil to regulate the amount of
light entering the eye?
Ans 1. Lens
2. Cornea
3. Retina
4. Iris
Q.21 The type of incontinence in which there is constant
dribbling of urine and is associated with
urinating frequently and in small amount is called:
Ans 1. overflow incontinence
2. stress incontinence
3. functional incontinence
4. urge incontinence
Q.22 Using the ‘rule of nine’, estimated burn size in an adult
having burn injury to chest and
stomach is ______ per cent.
Ans 1. 18
2. 27
3. 36
4. 9
Q.23 Which among the following is a colloid solution?
Ans 1. 0.9 % normal saline
2. dextran
3. 0.45 % normal saline
4. 25 % dextrose
Q.24 Which of the following results from severe allergic
reaction producing overwhelming
systemic vasodilation and relative hypovolaemia?
Ans 1. Hypovolaemic shock
2. Anaphylactic shock
3. Neurogenic shock
4. Septic shock
Q.25 Which of the following enzymes converts fats into fatty
acids and glycerol?
Ans 1. Bile
2. Trypsinogen
3. Salivary amylase
4. Lipase
Q.26 The movement of particles from region of higher
concentration to region of lower
concentration is called:
Ans 1. Diffusion
2. Filtration
3. Osmosis
4. Hydrolysis
Q.27 In acute pancreatitis, the levels of which of the following
enzymes remain elevated for 7-14
days?
Ans 1. Urine amylase
2. Serum amylase
3. Serum alkylane phosphatase
4. Serum lipase
Q.28 Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of
interstitial cystitis (IC)?
Ans 1. Frequency
2. Incontinence
3. Urgency
4. Pelvis pain
Q.29 The disease that occurs due to the defect in the genes of
one or other parent and is
transmitted to the offspring is known as ______
disease/disorder.
Ans 1. congenital
2. organic
3. hereditary
4. allergic
Q.30 Tonometry is the method of measuring the:
Ans 1. pressure inside the lungs
2. pressure inside the ear
3. intraocular pressure
4. blood pressure
Q.31 Haemophilia is associated with:
Ans 1. Chromosome 11
2. Y chromosome
3. Chromosome 21
4. X chromosome
Q.32 After a renal transplant, the rejection that occurs within
minutes is called:
Ans 1. hyper acute rejection
2. chronic rejection
3. acute rejection
4. sub-acute rejection
Q.33 Which of the following drugs is used for the dilation of
pupil?
Ans 1. Tropicamide
2. Betamethasone
3. Levofloxacin
4. Gentamicin
Q.34 What is the minimum possible score of Glasgow Coma Scale?
Ans 1. 3
2. 1
3. 2
4. 0
Q.35 The voice box is known as:
Ans 1. Larynx
2. Diaphragm
3. Bronchioles
4. Pharynx
Q.36 The most serious complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
is a blockage known as
______.
Ans 1. formation of venous ulcers
2. chronic occlusion of veins
3. gangrenous development of veins
4. pulmonary embolism
Q.37 Painful swallowing is known as:
Ans 1. dysphasia
2. odynophagia
3. ataxia
4. dyspepsia
Q.38 The antidote of warfarin is:
Ans 1. Protamine sulphate
2. Vitamin K
3. Heparin
4. Acetyl cysteine
Q.39 The most common lung cancer seen in non-smokers is:
Ans 1. small cell carcinoma
2. adenocarcinoma
3. large cell carcinoma
4. squamous cell carcinoma
Q.40 The presence of stones in the urinary tract is called:
Ans 1. Kideneylithiasis
2. Stonelithiasis
3. Urolithiasis
4. Cholelithiasis
Q.1 The act of purging or purification of emotions is called:
Ans 1. Compulsion
2. Catharsis
3. Cataplexy
4. Confabulation
Q.2 Which of the following is expected in a patient who is
diagnosed with an organic mental
disorder?
Ans 1. Intact memory
2. Appropriate behaviour
3. Disorganisation of thoughts
4. Orientation to person, place and time
Section : Psychiatric
Nursing
Q.3 According to Erikson's eight stages of development,
initiative vs. guilt takes place at:
Ans 1. 20 – 25 years
2. 10 – 15 years
3. 13 – 19 years
4. 3 – 5 years
Q.4 Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of the
obsessive-compulsive disorder?
Ans 1. No fear of self-harm
2. Fear of germs or dirt
3. Obsessive thoughts
4. Compulsive acts
Q.5 Which one of the following is derived from the plant
'Cannabis Sativa'?
Ans 1. Cocaine
2. Morphine
3. Ganja
4. Opium
Q.6 False sensory perception without real external stimulus is
known as:
Ans 1. Hallucination
2. Illusions
3. Delusions
4. Thought insertion
Q.7 A patient admitted in the psychiatric ward refused to eat
her lunch stating that the food is
poisoned. This kind of response is an example of:
Ans 1. Hallucination
2. Sympathy
3. Illusions
4. Delusions
Q.8 The La Belle indifference is related to:
Ans 1. Conversion reaction
2. Obsession compulsions disorder
3. Anxiety disorder
4. Phobic anxiety
Q.9 The disulphiram therapy is indicated in:
Ans 1. Acute intoxication
2. Cannabis dependence
3. Anxiety disorder
4. Chronic alcoholism
Q.10 A person suffering from ______, a severe anxiety disorder,
is able to speak freely with certain
people only and is not able to speak with others, especially
with certain social groups such
as classmates at school.
Ans 1. Mutism
2. Aphasia
3. Selective mutism
4. Epilepsy
Section : Midwifery
and Gynaecological Nursing
Q.1 Ovulation in a female with a 36 days cycle occurs between:
Ans 1. 30th – 34th day
2. 14th – 18th day
3. 8th – 12th day
4. 20th – 24th day
Q.2 The condition where the uterus turns inside out is called:
Ans 1. Uterine Inversion
2. Prolapse
3. Anteversion
4. Retroversion
Q.3 The graphical record of maternal and foetal data against
time during labour on a single
sheet of paper is called:
Ans 1. Ultrasonogram
2. Tocogram
3. Cardiotocogram
4. Partogram
Q.4 The most common genital prolapse is:
Ans 1. Rectocoele
2. Cystocoele
3. Procidentia
4. Enterocoele
Q.5 The first stage of labour is characterised by:
Ans 1. crowning of the head
2. expulsion of the foetus till the placenta
3. dilatation of cervix
4. delivery of the placenta
Q.6 The length of the fallopian tube ranges from:
Ans 1. 22-27 cm
2. 7-12 cm
3. 28-31 cm
4. 2-7 cm
Q.7 The shape of the brim in anthropoid pelvis is:
Ans 1. triangular with base towards sacrum
2. square
3. well-rounded
4. oval
Q.8 The suture that separates the parietal bone from the tabular
portion of the occipital bone is called:
Ans 1. Lambdoidal suture
2. Frontal suture
3. Sagittal suture
4. Coronal suture
Q.9 Urine formation usually begins towards the end of the ______
and continues throughout foetal life.
Ans 1. 3-5 weeks
2. 2-3 weeks
3. 21-22 weeks
4. 11-12 weeks
Q.10 The settling of foetal head into the brim of the pelvis is
called:
Ans 1. Crowning of head
2. Lightening
3. Engagement
4. Descent
Q.11 Which of the following is the common site of fertilization?
Ans 1. Interstitial
2. Isthmic
3. Ampulla
4. Infundibulum
Q.12 At about ______ of gestation, the height of the uterus is
at the level of umbilicus.
Ans 1. 6 - 8 weeks
2. 3 - 5 weeks
3. 20 - 22 weeks
4. 10 - 12 weeks
Q.13 The ovarian cycle is initiated by:
Ans 1. Progesterone
2. Follicle stimulating hormone
3. Endorphins
4. OeEstrogen
Q.14 The most common cause of non-engagement at term in
primigravida is:
Ans 1. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
2. Breech presentation
3. Hydramnios
4. Brow presentation
Q.15 What is the correct sequence of mitosis?
Ans 1. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
2. Anaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase
3. Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
4. Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
Q.16 The uterine fibroid is associated with:
Ans 1. Endometriosis
2. Amenorrhoea
3. Ovarian cancer
4. PID
Q.17 Inflammation of the fallopian tube is called:
Ans 1. Endometritis
2. Vaginitis
3. Salpingitis
4. Cervicitis
Q.18 The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is:
Ans 1. ampullary region in the fallopian tube
2. Cervix
3. Abdomen
4. Ovary
Q.19 The darkening of the skin over the forehead, bridge of nose
or cheekbones during
pregnancy is called:
Ans 1. Chloasma
2. Chadwick's sign
3. Hegar's sign
4. Linea nigrea
Q.20 The approximate average weight of placenta at birth is:
Ans 1. 300 g
2. 400 g
3. 508 g
4. 600 g
Q.21 Which of the following hormones is increased in Polycystic
Ovarian Syndrome?
Ans 1. 17-OH progesterone
2. Luteinising Hormone (LH)
3. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
4. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Q.22 The early puerperium extends:
Ans 1. until twelve weeks of postpartum
2. up to first year of delivery
3. until the thirteen weeks of postpartum
4. until the first week of postpartum
Q.23 Which one of the following is seen in preeclampsia?
Ans 1. Facial hair
2. Hypotension
3. Weight loss
4. Proteinuria
Q.24 A normal umbilical cord contains:
Ans 1. one artery and five veins
2. two arteries and one vein
3. five arteries and two veins
4. two arteries and ten veins
Q.25 Oxygenated blood from placenta returns to the foetus via
the ______.
Ans 1. Superior vena cava
2. Inferior vena cava
3. Umbilical vein
4. Ductus arteriosus
Q.26 Post-term pregnancy is a pregnancy which continues beyond:
Ans 1. 294 days
2. 250 days
3. 200 days
4. 170 days
Q.27 What is the ideal average newborn’s head circumference at
birth?
Ans 1. 75 cm
2. 35 cm
3. 55 cm
4. 15 cm
Q.28 Which of the following indicates relationship of long axis
of the foetus to that of mother?
Ans 1. Foetal lie
2. Foetal presentation
3. Foetal attitude
4. Foetal position
Q.29 The outer most membrane of placenta is called:
Ans 1. Yolk sac
2. Chorion
3. Amnion
4. Meningitis
Q.30 Peg cells are seen in the:
Ans 1. Intestine
2. Fallopian tubes
3. Stomach
4. Vagina
Q.31 Which of the following is the most important tumour marker
to diagnose carcinoma of
ovary?
Ans 1. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin
2. CA 125
3. Human placental lactogen
4. Serum alpha fetoprotein
Q.32 The onset of menstruation is called:
Ans 1. Menopause
2. Menarche
3. Andropause
4. Ovarian cycle
Q.33 Of the 6-7 million oocytes available, how many are released
during ovulation?
Ans 1. 3000 to 4000
2. 400 to 500
3. 2000 to 3000
4. 100 to 200
Q.34 During the active phase of labour, the cervical dilatation
per hour in primigravidas is approximately:
Ans 1. 1.2 cm
2. 1.9 cm
3. 2.3 cm
4. 2.5 cm
Q.35 The correct sequence of development of puberty in girls is:
Ans 1. Menarche, Pubarche, Thelarche
2. Thelarche, Pubarche, Menarche
3. Thelarche, Menarche, Pubarche
4. Pubarche, Menarche, Thelarche
Q.36 Postpartum haemorrhage is the condition in which there is
loss of more than ______ ml
vaginal blood.
Ans 1. 100
2. 50
3. 10
4. 500
Q.37 The normal APGAR score of a new born is:
Ans 1. 7 and above
2. 3 to 4
3. 4 to 6
4. below 3
Q.38 Which of the following is NOT a feature of HELLP syndrome?
Ans 1. Raised liver enzymes
2. Eosinophilia
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Haemolytic anaemia
Q.39 The first perception of active foetal movement felt by the
mother during pregnancy is
known as:
Ans 1. Engagement
2. Hastening
3. Quickening
4. Lightening
Q.40 The manoeuver commonly used to manage shoulder dystocia is:
Ans 1. Rossete Manoeuver
2. MacRobert's Manoeuver
3. Jeff Marshal Manoeuver
4. McMilan Manoeuver
Section : Paediatric
Nursing
Q.1 Which of the following is the most common cause of
ophthalmic neonatorum?
Ans 1. Candida albicans
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Neisseria gonorrhoea
4. Streptococcus
Q.2 Which of the following is NOT a part of the Tetralogy of
Fallot (TOF)?
Ans 1. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
3. Over-riding of Aorta
4. Pulmonary stenosis
Q.3 An injury to the upper brachial plexus results in:
Ans 1. Facial palsy
2. Phrenic nerve palsy
3. Klimke's palsy
4. Erb's palsy
Q.4 Which of the following is the ideal age for closure of the
anterior fontanel of a child?
Ans 1. 18 to 24 months
2. 6 to 8 months
3. 6 to 8 weeks
4. 18 to 24 weeks
Q.5 Which of the following is NOT a complication of measles?
Ans 1. Laryngitis
2. Conjunctivitis
3. Atrial Septal Defect
4. Encephalitis
Q.6 The most common type of leukaemia seen in children is:
Ans 1. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia (ALL)
2. Chronic Lymphoid Leukaemia (CHL)
3. Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML)
4. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML)
Q.7 Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity
Disorder (ADHD)?
Ans 1. Inattention
2. Impulsivity
3. Difficulty in eating
4. Overactivity
Q.8 Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestations of
Trisomy 21?
Ans 1. Flat nasal bridge
2. Protruding tongue
3. Long hands and fingers
4. Small nose
Q.9 Which of the following conditions can result in a hairy
patch on the back of children?
Ans 1. Epilepsy
2. Hydrocephalus
3. Spina bifida occulta
4. Ricket
Q.10 The Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative (BFHI) was launched
jointly by:
Ans 1. WHO and Red Cross
2. WHO and FAO
3. UNICEF and WHO
4. UNICEF and FAO
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