MEDICAL LAB
TECHNOLOGIST EXAM MCQS 2023
1. What is the life span of RBC?
(A) 120
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) 80
2. What is the recommended cleaner for removing
all oil from objective lens?
(A) 70% alcohol or lens cleaner
(B) xylene
(C) water
(D) benzene
3. Serum differs from blood as it lacks
(A) antibodies
(B) clotting factors
(C) albumins
(D) globulins
4. Oxygen is supplied from lungs to tissues and
organs by
(A) red blood cells
(B) white blood cells
(C) plasma
(D) platelets
5. Blood cells are produced in
(A) kidney
(B) lungs
(C) bone marrow
(D) glands
6. By volume, the red blood cells constitute
about _____% of whole blood.
(A) 15
(B) 25
(C) 35
(D) 45
7. Which constituent of blood fight against infections?
(A) red blood cells
(B) white blood cells
(C) plasma
(D) platelets
8. The pH value of blood is normally between
_____ and _____.
(A) 6.0, 6.5
(B) 7.0, 7.35
(C) 7.35, 7.45
(D) 7.45, 7.98
9. An average adult person has about _____ liters
of blood by volume.
(A) 5
(B) 5.5
(C) 6
(D) 6.5
10. What mordant is used in Gram staining?
(A) crystal violet
(B) safranin
(C) acid-alcohol
(D) iodine
11. RFT Includes:
(A) electrolytes
(B) total protein
(C) ast
(D) alt
12. Microscopic examination of urine is done
to find out:
(A) rbc
(B) pus cells
(C) cast
(D) All the above
13. Sample used for Platelet counting is :
(A) serum
(B) plasma
(C) EDTA blood
(D) citrate blood
14. Rh typing is based on the D-antigen present
in:
(A) platelet
(B) rbc
(C) lymphocyte
(D) eosinphils
15. ESR equipment is known as
(A) sahli's tube
(B) centrifuge
(C) vacutainer
(D) westegren's tube
16. The reagent used in estimation of Glucose
is:
(A) urease
(B) hexokinase
(C) jaffe
(D) None of the above
17. The commonly used fixative for slide preparation
is:
(A) benedict reagent
(B) distilled water
(C) formalin
(D) None of the above
18. Which one of the following does not
include
routine liver function test?
(A) bilirubin
(B) bile acid
(C) sgot
(D) alkaline phosphatase
19. CSF samples are collected by:
(A) lab tech
(B) staff nurse
(C) physician
(D) ward boy
20. All the following are motile bacteria
except:
(A) e.coli
(B) klebsiella
(C) vibrio
(D) proteus
21. Confirmatory test for AID's is:
(A) elisa
(B) clia
(C) western blot
(D) chromatography
22. The basic component of Leishman stain
is:
(A) eosin
(B) methylene blue
(C) malachite green
(D) safrenin
23. Which of the following is Romanowsky stain?
(A) Leishman
(B) giemsa
(C) jenners
(D) All the above
24. Which of these is not a lipid?
(A) Fats
(B) Oils
(C) Proteins
(D) Waxes
25. Which of the following is usually not
found in the urine?
(A) Magnesium
(B) Urea
(C) Uric acid
(D) Glucose
26. Testing a refrigerated specimen that has
not warmed to room temperature will adversely affect:
(A) Enzymatic reactions
(B) Dye-binding reactions
(C) The sodium nitroprusside reaction
(D) Diazo reactions
27. All of the following are important to
protect the integrity of reagent strips except:
(A) Removing the desiccant from the bottle
(B) Storing in an opaque bottle
(C) Storing at room temperature
(D) Resealing the bottle after removing a strip
28. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0:
(A) Indicates metabolic acidosis
(B) Should be recollected
(C) May contain calcium oxalate crystals
(D) Is seen after drinking cranberry juice
29. The most significant reagent strip test
that is associated with a positive ketone result is:
(A) Glucose
(B) Protein
(C) pH
(D) Specific gravity
30. A specific gravity of 1.005 would
produce the reagent strip color:
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Yellow
(D) Red
31. The coagulase is done to differentiate:
(A) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus
epidermidis
(B) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria
meningitidis
(C) Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis
(D) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus
32. Cardiac markers are:
(A) ck, ckmb, tropi
(B) ast, alt, protein
(C) carbohydrate
(D) glucose
33. To which of the following would the term
"white cell" NOT be applied?
(A) erythrocyte
(B) leucocyte
(C) lymphocyte
(D) monocyte
34. Which individuals can receive any type of
blood and are considered universal recipients?
(A) A+
(B) O–
(C) AB+
(D) B–
35. What is found in blood serum that is
also in blood plasma?
(A) blood cells
(B) platelets
(C) plasma proteins
(D) clotting factors
36. Tumor markers:
(A) CA125
(B) CA19.9
(C) CEA
(D) All the above
37. What is PPE in laboratory?
(A) personnel protective equipment
(B) pipette per equipment
(C) professional pipetter
(D) None of them
38. The liquid portion of blood remaining
after a clot has formed is called:
(A) plasma
(B) serum
(C) tissue
(D) lymph
39. Which test cannot be performed on a
serum sample?
(A) Iron
(B) Vitamin B12
(C) Total lipids
(D) Clotting factors
40. A suction device used to draw up liquids
is a:
(A) flask
(B) cylinder
(C) beaker
(D) safety bulb
41. Which one of the following is NOT a
blood component?
(A) Fresh frozen plasma
(B) Hemolysate
(C) Platelet concentrates
(D) Plasma
42. What is the normal hemoglobin concentration
in adult male?
(A) 13-20 g/dl
(B) 13 - 17 g/dl
(C) 13- 15 g/dl
(D) 11- 15 g/dl
43. Which one of the following is NOT the
site selected for collection of the blood?
(A) Spleen
(B) Arteries
(C) Capillaries
(D) Veins
44. Which one of the following tests is NOT used
to detect renal function?
(A) Blood sugar
(B) Blood urea
(C) Serum creatinine
(D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
45. Hay's test detects ___________ in urine.
(A) bile salts
(B) blood
(C) ketone bodies
(D) bile pigment
46. What is the gauge of the needle commonly
used for venipuncture?
(A) 26
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 18
47. Which of the following parasite is found
in urine specimen?
(A) Taenia sps
(B) Trichomonas vaginalis
(C) Trichuris trichiura
(D) Round worm
48. What is the eosinophil count present in
a normal DLC smear?
(A) 1-10%
(B) 6-10%
(C) 1-6%
(D) 5-10%
49. Which of the following type of
cholesterol is called as good cholesterol?
(A) HDL
(B) Chylomicrons
(C) VLDL
(D) LDL
50. Which of the following is a gram
negative bacilli?
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Staphylococcus citreus
(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
51. What is the colour of normal CSF?
(A) Colourless
(B) Yellow
(C) Light green
(D) Brown
52. Normal reticulocyte count in adults is
__________.
(A) 3-6%
(B) 0.5-2.5%
(C) 1-5%
(D) 2-10%
53. Cholesterol estimation is done by the following
method:
(A) Molisch method
(B) Benedict's method
(C) Zak's ferric chloride method
(D) Jaffes method
54. Coma shaped bacteria are known as
(A) Staphylococci
(B) Streptococci
(C) Vibrio
(D) Bacillus
55. A positive tuberculin test is indicated
by and area of induration of:
(A) < 5 mm in diameter
(B) 6-9 mm in diameter
(C) 10 mm in diameter
(D) No induration
56. Diagnostic test used for TB is .....
(A) Mantoux test
(B) Dick Test
(C) Shick test
(D) Widal test
57. Acid fast staining is used to detect
(A) Mycobacterium TB
(B) Ctetani
(C) HIV/AIDS
(D) Meningococci
58. Method of sterilization used for culture
media is...
(A) Autoclave
(B) Hot air oven
(C) Pasteurization
(D) None of the above
59. Shape of cocci
(A) Rod
(B) Spherical
(C) Comma
(D) Spiral
60. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of
(A) Syphilis
(B) HIV
(C) Typhoid
(D) Tuberculosis
61. Name the anticoagulant present in purple
colored vacutainer tube
(A) Heparin
(B) EDTA
(C) Sodium citrate
(D) None of these
62. Ketone bodies in urine are:
(A) Acetone
(B) Beta hydroxy butyric acid
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
63. Serum electrolytes are analyzed using
(A) Calorimeter
(B) Flame photometer
(C) Spectrophotometer
(D) None of these
64. Temperature range used for autoclaving
is....
(A) 100°C for 10 min
(B) 100°C for 30 min
(C) 121°C for 15 min
(D) 121°C for 30 min
65. The only cell in normal CSF is
(A) Neutrophil
(B) Lymphocyte
(C) Manocyte
(D) None of these
66. The solution used to fix a pap smear is:
(A) wright stain
(B) hematoxylin
(C) physiological saline
(D) cytospray
67. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
is referred to as:
(A) Hematuria
(B) Hemoglobinuria
(C) Anuria
(D) Chyluria
68. Specific gravity of urine normally
varies between ________.
(A) 1.010–1.040
(B) 1.010–1.015
(C) 1.010–1.030
(D) 1.030–1.040
69. Name the test used to detect the
presence of glucose in urine :
(A) Fouchet's test
(B) Benedict's test
(C) Hay's test
(D) Rothera's test
70. A compound microscope has how many lenses
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
ANSWER KEY- Lab Technician MLT Answer Key
1. A 26. A 51. A 76. D
2. A 27. A 52. B 77. C
3. B 28. B 53. C 78. D
4. A 29. A 54. C 79. B
5. C 30. A 55. C 80. C
6. D 31. A 56. A 81. C
7. B 32. A 57. A 82. B
8. C 33. A 58. A 83. A
9. A 34. C 59. B 84. A
10. D 35. C 60. A 85. C
11. A 36. D 61. B 86. D
12. D 37. A 62. C 87. D
13. C 38. B 63. B 88. D
14. B 39. D 64. C 89. A
15. D 40. D 65. B 90. A
16. B 41. B 66. D 91. B
17. C 42. B 67. A 92. B
18. B 43. A 68. C 93. D
19. C 44. A 69. B 94. C
20. B 45. A 70. C 95. B
21. C 46. C 71. B 96. C
22. B 47. B 72. A 97. A
23. D 48. C 73. D 98. D
24. C 49. A 74. B 99. B
25. D 50. D 75. A 100. A
