Upsc Esic Nursing Officer Exam 2024 Answer Key आपके कितने नंबर आए

Esic Nursing Officer Exam 2024 Answer Key

UPSC ESIC NURSING OFFICER EXAM 2024 ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION

1. Which one of the following hormones is secreted by neurohypophysis that causes uterine contractions?

(a) Estrogen

(b) Progesterone

(d) Oxytocin

· (d) Oxytocin

Oxytocin is a hormone secreted by the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary gland) that stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth.

2, Which one of the following plasmas

Proteins’ has the function of maintaining osmotic pressure?

(a) Haptoglobin

(b) Transferrin

(d) Ceruloplasmin:

· (c) Albumin

Albumin is a plasma protein that plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure, which is essential for the distribution of body fluids between body tissues and the bloodstream.

3. Which of the following conditions can cause Steatorrhea?

1. Pancreatic enzyme insufficiency

Z. Diseases affecting small intestines

3. Bile acid deficiency

4. Insulin ‘deficiency' Select the correct answer

code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2,3 and 4

· (c) 1, 2, and 3

Steatorrhea, the presence of excess fat in feces, can be caused by:

Pancreatic enzyme insufficiency
Diseases affecting small intestines (such as celiac disease)
Bile acid deficiency

Insulin deficiency is not directly related to steatorrhea.

4. All of the following are theories of motivation EXCEPT

(a) Self-determination theory

(b) Hulls theory

(a) Sternberg's triarchic theory

(d) Sternberg's triarchic theory

Sternberg's triarchic theory is a theory of intelligence, not motivation. The other options (Self-determination theory, Hull's theory, and Psychoanalytical theory) are theories of motivation.

5. The highest -level of growth needs as per the Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory is

(a) Aesthetic

(b) Cognitive

(d) Self-actualization

· (d) Self-actualization

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, self-actualization is the highest level of growth needs, representing the realization of one's potential and self-fulfillment.

6. An IQ score of 90 is classified as

(a) Borderline

(b) Average

(d) Bright normal

Answer (b) Average

An IQ score of 90 is classified as average, which typically ranges from 85 to 115.

7. According to Sigmund Freud's theory

of Psychoanalysis, all of the following

are structures of personality EXCEPT

(a) Conscious

(b) Id

(d) Superego

Answer (a) Conscious

According to Freud's theory of psychoanalysis, the structures of personality include the Id, Ego, and Superego. The conscious is a level of awareness, not a structure of personality.

8. The conflict that occurs due to having to choose between (wo positive goals which are equally attractive at the same time is called

(a) Approach-avoidance conflict

(b) Double approach avoidance conflict

(a) Approach-approach conflict

Answer (d) Approach-approach conflict

Approach-approach conflict occurs when an individual must choose between two equally attractive options.

9. The type of family in which father has highest status in family who controls the social life of family is called

(a) Patriarchal family

(b) Matriarchal family

(d) Patrilineal family

Answer (a) Patriarchal family

In a patriarchal family, the father has the highest status and controls the social life of the family.

10. Which of the following are ways of Acculturation?

1. Trade and commerce

2. Industrialization

3. Education

4. Conquest

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Acculturation can occur through various means, including:

Trade and commerce
Industrialization
Education
Conquest

11. Which of the following are essential amino acids?

1. Leucine

2. Tryptophan

3. Methionine

4. Cystine

5. Histidine

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1,3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5

The essential amino acids are those that cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet. Leucine, Tryptophan, Methionine, and Histidine are essential amino acids. Cystine is not essential because it can be synthesized from methionine.

12. Match the List I with List II and select

the correct answer using the code given

below the lists::

List I List II

(Deficiency) (Sign)

A. Corneal 1. Triangular,pearly-white or

xerosis yellowish, foamy spots on bulbar

conjunctiva xerosis

B. Kerato- 2. Cornea dulls dry and non-wettable

Malacia and eventually opaque

C. Conjunctival 3. Cornea becomes soft and may burst

xerosis open

D. Bitot's 4. Conjunctiva becomes dry and non

Spot wettable

Code :

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 1 3 4 2

(a) 1 4 3 2

(c) 2 3 4 1

The correct matching is:

Corneal xerosis: Cornea dulls dry and non-wettable and eventually opaque.
Keratomalacia: Cornea becomes soft and may burst open.
Conjunctival xerosis: Conjunctiva becomes dry and non-wettable.
Bitot's spot: Triangular, pearly-white or yellowish, foamy spots on bulbar conjunctiva.

13. Match the List I with List II and select

the correct answer using the code

given below the lists :

List I List II

(Nutrient) (Function)

A. Vitamin D 1. Essential for the metabolism of

carbohydrates,fats and proteins

B. Niacin 2. Promotes intestinal absorption of

calcium and phosphorus

C. Vitamin C 3. Essential for formation of

bones and teeth

D. Phosphorus 4. Acts as antioxidant

Code :

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 4 1 3

(b) 2 1 4 3

The correct matching is:

Vitamin D: Promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus.
Niacin: Essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
Vitamin C: Acts as an antioxidant.
Phosphorus: Essential for the formation of bones and teeth.

14. Which one of the following serum

enzymes is used in clinical diagnosis

of acute pancreatitis ?

(a) Lactate dehydrogenase

(b) Alanine aminotransferase

(d) Amylase

(d) Amylase

Serum amylase is commonly measured in the clinical diagnosis of acute pancreatitis.

15. Which one of the following is the

major immunoglobulin human serum ?

(a) IgA

(b) IgD

(d) IgE

(c) IgG

IgG is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, playing a crucial role in the immune response.

16. Which one of the following is NOT a

component of epidemiological triad ?

(a) Environment

(b) Agent

(d) Disease

(d) Disease

The epidemiological triad consists of three components: Agent, Host, and Environment. Disease is the outcome of the interaction between these three components.

17. During Pulse Polio Immunization,

Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) has

noticed that on vaccine vial monitor

the color of square inside the circle is

darker than the circle around it. What

should be her action ?

(a) Administer the vaccine to children from the same vial

(b) Administer the vaccine fromn same vial after shaking it

same vial

(d) Should not use this vial for vaccination

(d) Should not use this vial for vaccination

If the color of the square inside the circle is darker than the circle around it on a vaccine vial monitor, it indicates that the vaccine has been exposed to temperatures beyond the recommended range and should not be used.

18. Match the List I with List II and selcct

the correct answer using given below the lists :

List I List II

(Causative agent) (Disease)

A. Bordetella 1, Yellow fever

pertusis

B. Salmonella 2. Food poisoning

typhi

C. Clostridium 3. Whooping cough

pegfringes

D. Flavivirus 4. Enteric fever

fibricus

Code :

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 3 4 2 1

(d) 1 4 2 3

(b) 3 4 2 1

The correct matching is:

Bordetella pertussis: Whooping cough.
Salmonella typhi: Enteric fever (typhoid fever).
Clostridium perfringens: Food poisoning.
Flavivirus: Yellow fever

19. Which one of the following services

should ideally form the base of the

health service pyramid?

(a) Clinical preventive services

(b) Population based health care services

(d) Tertiary health care services

(b) Population based health care services

Population-based health care services form the base of the health service pyramid, providing broad public health services aimed at prevention and health promotion.

20. Community Based Assessment Check-

list (CBAC) for early detection of

non-communicable diseases is to be

filled by

(a) Medical Officer

(b) Staff Nurse

(d) ASHA

(d) ASHA

The Community Based Assessment Checklist (CBAC) for early detection of non-communicable diseases is typically filled by ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist).

21. Which of the following are the team

members of -Health and Wellness

Centre (HWC) at Sub Centre (SC) level?

1. Community health officers (Mid-Level Health Provider)

2. ANM

3. ASHA

4. Anganwadi worker

Select the, correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only.

(d), 1, 2 and 3 only

· (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

The team members of Health and Wellness Centres (HWC) at the Sub Centre (SC) level typically include Community Health Officers (Mid-Level Health Providers), ANMs, ASHAs, and Anganwadi workers.

22, Which one of the following colors

codes is NOT correct tor triage system

adopted in triage of disaster management in India?

(a) Red indicates high priority treatment

(b) Yellow indicates medium care

priority

(d) Black indicates dead and mori-

bund ‘patients

· (c) Blue indicates ambulatory patients

In the triage system adopted in disaster management in India, the color blue is not used. The correct color codes are:

Red: High priority treatment
Yellow: Medium care priority
Black: Dead and moribund patients

23. Under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan

Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-

PMJAY), how much cover per family

per year is provided for secondary and

tertiary care hospitalization?

(a) INR 2,00,000

(b) INR 5,00,000

(d) INR 10,00,000

· (b) INR 5,00,000

Under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY), each family is provided with a cover of INR 5,00,000 per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.

24. Discouraging children from adopting

harmful lifestyles for the prevention

of non-communicable disease is an

example of

(a) Primordial prevention

(b) Primary prevention

(a) Tertiary prevention

· (a) Primordial prevention

Discouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles to prevent non-communicable diseases is an example of primordial prevention, which aims to prevent the emergence of risk factors in the first place.

25. Screenings of a sub group population for a particular disease is called

(a) Mass screening

(b) Selective screening

(d) Multiphasic screening

· (b) Selective screening

Screening of a subgroup population for a particular disease is called selective screening. It targets high-risk groups rather than the entire population.

26. Which one of the following is the indicator of prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community ?

(a) Total Fertility Rate

(b) General Fertility Rate

(d) Net Reproduction Rate

· (c) Couple Protection Rate

The Couple Protection Rate is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in a community, reflecting the percentage of couples using any form of contraception.

27. Which one of the following occupational diseases occurs due to sugarcane dust?

(a) Anthracosis

(b) Silicosis

(d) Bagassosis

· (d) Bagassosis

Bagassosis is an occupational disease caused by inhaling sugarcane dust, leading to respiratory issues.

28. Which one of the following vaccines

is sensitive to freezing and should be

protected from sub-zero temperature?

(a) Oral polio

(b) BCG

(d) Cholera

· (c) Japanese encephalitis

The Japanese encephalitis vaccine is sensitive to freezing and should be protected from sub-zero temperatures to maintain its efficacy.

29. Peyer's patches are present in

(a) Stomach

(b) Duodenum

(d) Ileum

· (d) Ileum

Peyer's patches are lymphoid tissues found in the ileum of the small intestine, playing a role in the immune response.

30. The type of joints, where movement

takes place about a single stationary

axis, and is largely restricted to one

plane are known as

(a) Plane joints

(b) Hinge joints

(d) Saddle joints.

· (b) Hinge joints

Hinge joints are types of joints where movement takes place about a single stationary axis and is largely restricted to one plane, such as the elbow and knee joints

32. All of the following are the causes OI

menorrhagia EXCEPT

(a) Androgen producing tumours

(b) Pelvic endometriosis

(d) Granulosa cell tumors. of the ovary

· (a) Androgen producing tumors

Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, is not typically caused by androgen-producing tumors. The other conditions listed (pelvic endometriosis, adenomyosis, and granulosa cell tumors of the ovary) are known causes of menorrhagia.

33. In the neonates, the brown fat is

located at the following sites EXCEPT

(a) Around the heart

(b) In the axillae

(d) Around the kidney

· (c) Around the brain

In neonates, brown fat is not located around the brain. It is typically found around the heart, in the axillae, and around the kidneys.

34. The normal respiratory rate of a newborn is

(a) 14 - 18 breaths per minute

(b) 30 60 breaths per minute

(d) 20- 30 breaths per minute

· (b) 30 - 60 breaths per minute

The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is 30-60 breaths per minute.

35. A persistent rise in PCO2 and decrease

in pH level in newborn is indicative. Of

(a) Metabolic acidosis

(b) Respiratory acidosis

(d) Metabolic alkalosis

· (b) Respiratory acidosis

A persistent rise in PCO2 and a decrease in pH level in a newborn is indicative of respiratory acidosis, which occurs due to inadequate ventilation.

36. Nipple confusion is a situation where the infant

(a) Accepts the artificial as well as

mother's nipple

(b) Accepts the mother's nipple but

refuses artificial nipple

refuses the mother's nipple

(d) Refuses to feed at all

· (c) Accepts the artificial nipple but refuses the mother's nipple

Nipple confusion occurs when an infant prefers the artificial nipple over the mother's nipple, often due to differences in sucking techniques required for bottle feeding versus breastfeeding.

37, Classical symptom of invasive cervical

cancer is

(a) Hematuria

(b) Back pain

(d) Anemia

· (c) Postcoital bleeding

The classical symptom of invasive cervical cancer is postcoital bleeding, which is bleeding after sexual intercourse.

38. The irregular overlapping of the

cranial bones on one another due to

liquefaction of the brain matter of

foetus is called

(a) Jacquemier's sign

(b) Spalding sign

(d) Robert's sign

· (b) Spalding sign

The irregular overlapping of the cranial bones due to liquefaction of the brain matter of the fetus is called Spalding sign, an indication of fetal demise.

39. What will be the approximate Body

Mass Index (BM) of a woman with

weight 70 kg and height 155 cm ?

(a) 26-1

(b) 29.1

(d) 24-6

· (b) 29.1

The Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated as weight (kg) divided by height (m)^2. For a woman with weight 70 kg and height 155 cm (1.55 m): BMI=701.552≈29.1\text{BMI} = \frac{70}{1.55^2} \approx 29.1BMI=1.55270≈29.1

40. What will be the incidence rate, if there

are 500 new cases of an ilIness in a

population of 30,000 in a year ?

(a) 1.42 per 1000 per year

(b) 14.2 per 1000 per year

(d) 1.67 per 1000 per year

· (c) 16.7 per 1000 per year

The incidence rate is calculated as the number of new cases divided by the population at risk, multiplied by 1000. For 500 new cases in a population of 30,000:

Incidence rate=500/30000×1000=16.7 per 1000 per year

41. All of the following foods have high

glycemic index EXCEPT

(a) Brown rice

(b) Corn flakes

(c). Baked potato

(d) White bread

(a) Brown rice

Brown rice has a lower glycemic index compared to corn flakes, baked potatoes, and white bread, which have higher glycemic indices.

42. Which one of the following types of

undernutrition is indicated by Z-score

below -3SD of the median WHO child

growth standards.?

(a) Underweight

(b) Stunting

(d) Severe acute malnutrition

· (d) Severe acute malnutrition

A Z-score below -3 SD of the median WHO child growth standards indicates severe acute malnutrition.

43. Which one of the following is a

measure of overall disease burden

expressed as a number of years lost

due to ill-health, disability or early

death?

(a) Health-adjusted life expectancy

(b) Quality-adjusted life years

(d) Disability-adjusted life years

· (d) Disability-adjusted life years

Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) are a measure of overall disease burden, expressed as the number of years lost due to ill-health, disability, or early death.

44. Numerator for calculating neonatal

mortality rate is neonatal deaths within

(a) 28 days of life

(b) 45 days of life

(d) 90 days of life

· (a) 28 days of life

The numerator for calculating neonatal mortality rate is the number of neonatal deaths within 28 days of life.

45. Which one of the following drugs

used for treatment of malaria is

contraindicated in pregnancy ?

(a) Chloroquine

(b) Primaquine

(d) Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine

· (b) Primaquine

Primaquine is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of hemolytic anemia in the fetus.

46. A report of any event that is NOT

consistent with the routine of hospital

and is written only if any mishap or

mistake occurs in patient care is called

(a) Compliance report

(b) Hand-off report

(d) Clinical information report

· (c) Incident report

An incident report is written to document any event that is not consistent with the routine operation of the hospital and occurs when there is a mishap or mistake in patient care.

47. When one chooses a course of action

from several options, based on a criterion, based on regulations of institution and professional standards, this process is called

(a) Problem solving

(b) Decision making

(d) Hypothesizing a solution

· (b) Decision making

Decision making involves choosing a course of action from several options based on criteria, regulations, and professional standards.

48. The most appropriate data collection

tool to measure attitude towards condom use would be

(a) Checklist

(b) Q sorts

(d) Likert-scale

· (d) Likert-scale

The Likert-scale is the most appropriate data collection tool to measure attitudes towards condom use as it allows respondents to express their degree of agreement or disagreement with statements.

49. Consider the following research statement :

"A study to assess motivation-focused

intervention effect on self-esteem of

adolescents in a school"

What type of variable is 'motivation-

focused intervention? in the statement

given above ?

(a) Confounding

(b) Independent

(d) Extraneous

· (b) Independent

In the given research statement, 'motivation-focused intervention' is the independent variable, as it is the variable being manipulated to observe its effect on the dependent variable, which is self-esteem.

50. A researcher conducted a. study to describe the lived experiences of care givers of patients with Dementia Which type of qualitative study is conducted by the researcher?

(a) Ethnography

(b) Phenomenology

(d) Grounded theory

(b) Phenomenology

The study to describe the lived experiences of caregivers of patients with dementia is an example of a phenomenological study, which focuses on understanding and describing people's lived experiences.

51. The following diagram is indicative of

weight Hight

pic

(a) Weak negative correlation

(6) Strong negative correlation

(d Moderate positive correlation

52. Match the List I with List II and select

the correct answer using the code given

below the lists :

List I List II

(Phase) (Step)

A Empirical 1. Deciding a sampling plan

phase

B. Design and 2. Interpreting the results

planning phase

C. Dissemination 3. Collecting the data

phase

D. Analytic phase 4. Utilizing the findings

CODE:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 2 4 1 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

(c) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

Empirical phase corresponds to collecting the data.
Design and planning phase corresponds to deciding a sampling plan.
Dissemination phase corresponds to utilizing the findings.
Analytic phase corresponds to interpreting the results.

53. Approach to reliability assessment that involves administration of the same measure to the same people on two occasions is called as

(a) Inter-rater reliability

(b) Test-retest reliability

(d) Parallel test reliability

(b) Test-retest reliability

54. A 26 years old woman visiting gynecology OPD complains of creamy vaginal discharge with fishy odour. There is no history of itching. The possible diagnosis of the patient is

(a) Candidiasis

(b) Chlamydial infection

(d) Leukoderma

(c) Bacterial vaginosis

55. Match the List I with List II and select

: the correct answer using the code given

below the lists

List I List II

(Phenomenon) (Diagnostic feature of USG)

A. Threatened 1. Foetus without cardiac activity

abortion

B. Missed 2. Uterine cavity empty.

abortion

C. Incomplete 3. Foetus alive and retroplacental

abortion haemorrhage

D. Complete 4. Products of conception partly retained

abortion

CODE:

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 3 4 1 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

55. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer:

List I - (Phenomenon)

A. Threatened abortion
B. Missed abortion
C. Incomplete abortion
D. Complete abortion

List II - (Diagnostic feature of USG)

Fetus without cardiac activity

Uterine cavity empty

Fetus alive and retroplacental hemorrhage

Products of conception partly retained

CODE:

(a) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

Threatened abortion: Fetus alive and retroplacental hemorrhage.
Missed abortion: Fetus without cardiac activity.
Incomplete abortion: Products of conception partly retained.
Complete abortion: Uterine cavity empty.

56. Daily requirement of calcium during

pregnancy and lactation is

(a) 500 -1000 mg

(b) 1.0 -1.5 gm

(d) > 2.0 gm

56. Daily requirement of calcium during pregnancy and lactation is:

(b) 1.0 - 1.5 gm

57. Presence of functioning endometrium

in sites other than uterine mucosa is

called

(a) Uterine polyps

(b) Adenomyosis

(d) Endometriosis

57. Presence of functioning endometrium in sites other than uterine mucosa is called:

(d) Endometriosis

58. Which one of the following is a non-

steroidal compound with potent

antiestrogenic properties used for oral

contraception?

(a) Progestin-only pill

(b) Levonorgestrel

(d) Cent chroman

58. A non-steroidal compound with potent antiestrogenic properties used for oral contraception is:

(d) Centchroman

59. Active management of 3rd stage of

labor includes

(a) Administration of oxytocin 10 units IM

(b) Crede's expression of the placenta

(d) Administration of misoprostol 1000 g per rectum

59. Active management of the 3rd stage of labor includes:

(a) Administration of oxytocin 10 units IM

60. All of the following are the causes or

secondary dysmenorrhea EXCEPT

(a) Endometriosis

(b) Adenomyosis

(d) Pelvic adhesions

60. All of the following are causes of secondary dysmenorrhea EXCEPT:

(c) Bicornuate uterus

Explanation:

Secondary dysmenorrhea is typically caused by conditions like endometriosis, adenomyosis, and pelvic adhesions. A bicornuate uterus is a congenital malformation that typically doesn't cause dysmenorrhea.

61. The withdrawal and inability to initiate

and persist in goal-directed activity is called

(a) Apathy.

(b) Anhedonia

(d). Avolition

(d) Avolition

Explanation:

Avolition is characterized by a lack of motivation to pursue meaningful goals.

62. The most important and effective

strategy for the elderly-to maintain

self-esteem and support the natural

healing process of life review is

(a) Bibliotherapy

(b) Token economy

(d) Milieu therapy.

(c) Reminiscence

Explanation:

Reminiscence therapy involves reflecting on and discussing past experiences, which can help maintain self-esteem and support psychological well-being in the elderly.

63. The psychopharmacologic drug classification of Olanzapine is

(a) Typical antipsychotic

(b) Atypical antipsychotic

(d) Mood stabilizer

(b) Atypical antipsychotic

Explanation:

Olanzapine is classified as an atypical antipsychotic, used to treat conditions like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.

64, While assessing the patient nurse asks

the patient, "if a house were on fire,

what would you do ?" Which one of

the following is being assessed by

the nurse by asking that question ?

(a) Test judgement

(b) Social judgement

(d) Abstract thinking

(a) Test judgement

Explanation:

The question is designed to assess the patient's judgment by evaluating their decision-making process in a hypothetical scenario.

65. All of the following are symptoms of

opioids overdose EXCEPT

(a) Delirium tremens

(b) Respiratory depression

(d) Coma

(a) Delirium tremens

Explanation:

Delirium tremens is associated with alcohol withdrawal, not opioid overdose.

66. A highly structured psychotherapeutic

method used to alter distorted beliefs

and problem behaviour by identifying

and replacing negative inaccurate

thoughts and changing rewards for

behaviour is

(a) Behaviour therapy

(b) Cognitive behaviour therapy

(d) Motivational enhancement therapy

(b) Cognitive behaviour therapy

Explanation:

Cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviours.

67. An excitatory neurotransmitter that is

diffusely distributed within cerebral

cortex, limbic system and basal ganglia

of the CNS, and plays a role in emotions, cognition and sensory

perceptions is

(a) Histamine

(b) GABA

(d) Glycine

(c) Serotonin

Explanation:

Serotonin is involved in mood regulation, cognition, and perception.

68. Consider the following communication

between a patient and nurse :

Patient : I have done something awful

Nurse : I would like to hear about

it. It's okay to discuss it

with me

Which one of the following verbal

communication techniques is being

used by the nurse?

(a) Acceptance

(b) Confrontation

(d) Validation

(a) Acceptance

Explanation:

Acceptance involves acknowledging and allowing the patient to express their feelings without judgment.

69. Match the List I with List II and select

the correct answer using the code given

below the lists :

List I List II

(Generic drug name) (Classification)

A. Flurazepam 1. Antihistamine

B. Zolpidem 2. Melatonergic hypnotic

C. Ramelteon 3. Nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic

D. Hydroxyzine 4. Benzodiazepine hypnotic

(d) 4 3 2 1

Explanation:

Flurazepam is a benzodiazepine hypnotic.
Zolpidem is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic.
Ramelteon is a melatonergic hypnotic.
Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine.

70. All of the following symptoms present

in a patient since last 2 weeks are

indicative of Major Depressive Disorder EXCEPT

(a) Depressed mood

(b) Markedly diminished interest

(a) Fatigue

(c) Catatonic behaviour

Explanation:

Catatonic behaviour is not a typical symptom of Major Depressive Disorder; it is more associated with severe psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia.

71. Which of the following are assumptions in Milieu therapy?

1. The patient owns his/her environment

2. The patient takes responsibility for

his/her behaviors

3. Inappropriate behavior needs to

be corrected

4. Peer pressure has no role to play

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Milieu therapy involves the patient owning their environment, taking responsibility for their behaviors, and correcting inappropriate behavior. Peer pressure does play a role, so statement 4 is incorrect.

72. According to S.I.U. staffing norms for

the nurses working in Central government hospitals, the normal/general

ward should have

(a) One nurse/nursing sister for every

seven beds

(b) One nurse/nursing sister for every

six beds

five beds

(d) One nurse/nursing sister for every

four beds

(c) One nurse/nursing sister for every five beds

Explanation:

According to S.I.U. staffing norms, the general ward should have one nurse or nursing sister for every five beds to ensure adequate patient care.

73. A temporary placement of nurses n

a ward for 12 hours or less which 1s

done, to cover the shortage of nurses,

especially during evening and night

shifts by the supervisors is called

(a) Intradepartmental deployment

(b) Interdepartmental deployment

(d) Short-term deployinent

(d) Short-term deployment

Explanation:

Short-term deployment refers to the temporary placement of nurses to cover staffing shortages.

74. All of the following are techniques of

inventory control EXCEPT

(a) ABC analysis

(b) VED analysis

(d) SDX analysis

(d) SDX analysis

Explanation:

SDX analysis is not a recognized technique of inventory control. ABC, VED, and XYZ analyses are commonly used inventory control methods.

75. All of the following are major penalties

awarded for the employees for their

serious misconduct EXCEPT

(a) Loss of privileges

(b) Demotion

(d) Withholding increments

(c) Transfer

Explanation:

Transfer is not considered a major penalty. Major penalties include loss of privileges, demotion, and withholding increments.

76. Period of practical experience and

training in clinical nursing supervised

by an expert of a particular field is

known as

(a) Preceptorship

(b) Mentorship

(d) Self-reflection

(a) Preceptorship

Explanation:

Preceptorship refers to practical training supervised by an expert. Mentorship and peer group support are related but not specific to clinical training.

76. The overall plan 'of rotation of all

students in educational institution

including teaching learning activities

and related events during academic year

is known as

(a) Clinical rotation plan

(b) Master rotation plan

(d) Course plan

(b) Master rotation plan

Explanation:

The master rotation plan outlines the schedule for all students, including rotations and related activities throughout the academic year.

78. Consider the following statements

regarding Objective Structured Clinical

Examination (OSCE) method:

1. It provides more emphasis on

performance of skills

2. It is more useful in assessing the

knowledge of students

3. It requires checklists for evaluation

4. Holistic approach to patient

agreement cannot be assessed

Which of the statements' given above are correct?

(a) 1,3 and 4

(b) 1,2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

(a) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation:

OSCE emphasizes performance of skills, requires checklists for evaluation, and does not assess holistic patient care. It is not primarily for assessing knowledge.

79. Which one of the following tools

maintained by teacher is very valuable

for assessment of student's performance?

(a) Incident record

(b) Anecdotal record

(d) Clinical attendance

(b) Anecdotal record

Explanation:

Anecdotal records are detailed, narrative descriptions of specific incidents that are valuable for assessing student performance.

80. A chart indicating the distribution of

questions based on objectives and

content area is called

(a) Question paper

(b) Blue print

(d) Check list

(b) Blue print

Explanation:

A blueprint is a chart used to plan the distribution of questions across different objectives and content areas, ensuring comprehensive coverage.

81. Match the List I with List II and select

the correct answer using the code given

below the lists:

List I List II

(Developmental task) (Stage of growth and development)

A. Develops a 1. Toddlerhood

sense of trust

B. Develops 2. Infancy

autonomy

C. Develops 3. School age

initiative and

purpose

D. Develops a sense

of accomplishment 4. Preschool age

CODE:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 2 4 1 3

(d) 3 4 1 2

(a) 2 1 4 3

Explanation:

A: Develops a sense of trust - Infancy (2)
B: Develops autonomy - Toddlerhood (1)
C: Develops initiative and purpose - Preschool age (4)
D: Develops a sense of accomplishment - School age (3)

82. Which one of the following methods is

the most appropriate for feeding the

baby born at 31 weeks of gestation?

(a) Intravenous fluids and oral feeding

(b) Oro-gastric/nasogastric tube feeding with occasional

Spoon or palladia feeding

orogastric/nasogastric tube feeding

(d) Total parenteral nutrition

(b) Oro-gastric/nasogastric tube feeding with occasional spoon or palladia feeding

Explanation:

Babies born at 31 weeks often require orogastric or nasogastric tube feeding due to their immature sucking and swallowing reflexes.

83. A fourteen-year-old child has been

admitted with the complaints of fever,

headache, chills and vomiting. He has

been provisionally diagnosed as a case

of bacterial meningitis and has been

advised lumbar puncture for the

examination of cerebrospinal fluid

(CSF). Which one of the following

variations in CSF will confirm that the

child has bacterial meningitis?

(a) Neutrophils and protein content

elevated

(b) Color of CSF is clear or slightly turbid.

(d) Glucose content is normal

(a) Neutrophils and protein content elevated

Explanation:

Bacterial meningitis typically presents with elevated neutrophils and protein content in the CSF.

84. Which of the following are true about

the signs of good attachment in

breastfeeding technique?

1. The baby's mouth is wide open

2. Upper areola is visible, not the

lower one

3. Baby's chin touches the breast

4. The upper lip of the baby 1s

everted/turned outward

5. Baby's head and body are in one

plane

Select the correct answer using the

code given below :

(a) 1,4 and 5

(b) 2, 3 and 5

(d) 3,4 and 5

(a) 1, 4 and 5

Explanation:

Good attachment signs include the baby's mouth wide open, the upper lip everted, and the baby's head and body in one plane.

85. During resuscitation, which one of the

following medications is indicated

initially if the heart rate of a newborn

continues to be less than 60 per minute

after 30 seconds of Positive Pressure

Ventilation and Chest Compression ?

(a) Epinephrine

(b) Sodium Bicarbonate

(d) Dexamethasone

(a) Epinephrine

Explanation:

Epinephrine is indicated if the heart rate remains below 60 per minute despite adequate ventilation and chest compressions.

86. A 15-month-old child is brought to the

OPD with diarrhoea. He has sunken

eyes; the skin pinch goes back slowly

and he drinks eagerly. As per the

Integrated Management of Neonatal

and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI), this

child is classified as

(a) Severe dehydration

(b) Some dehydration

(d) Severe persistent diarrhoea

(b) Some dehydration

Explanation:

Signs of some dehydration include sunken eyes, slow skin pinch return, and eager drinking.

87, Which ono of he following babies in

eligible lor Kanpto0 Mother Cre (KMC) ?

(n) Baby weighing 1000 gram cared in

an incubator

(b) Baby with a birth weight of 2:6 kg

weight baby

(d) Baby who is sick and card under

radiant warmer

(c) Hemodynamically stable Low birth weight baby

Explanation:

KMC is suitable for hemodynamically stable low birth weight babies as it provides warmth and promotes bonding and breastfeeding.

88. A 10-year-old child has born admitted

in a pediatric medical ward with

sudden onset of hematuria, oliguria,

edema and hypertension. Which one of

the following conditions the child is

likely to have?

(a) Nephrotic syndrome

(b) Acute kidney injury

(d) Chronic renal failure

(c) Acute glomerulonephritis

Explanation:

Acute glomerulonephritis commonly presents with hematuria, oliguria, edema, and hypertension.

89. A six-year-old child has beck admitted

in pediatrics medical ward as a caso of

malignant tumour. Which one of the

following is the most common in the

above age group ?

(a) Acute myeloid leukaemia

(b) Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia

(c). Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

(d) Chronic myeloid leukemia

(c) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

Explanation:

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is the most common type of leukaemia in children.

90. Match the Lint I with Lint II and select

lo correct answer using the code given

below the lists :

List I List II

(Condition)

A. Hypertrophic 1, Bilious vomiting

Pyloric Stenosis

B. Intussusception 2. Projectile vomiting

C. Peptic Ulcer 3. Pain in the right lower

quadrant of abdomen

D. Appendicitis 4. Recurrent vomiting

CODE:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 3 1 4 2

(d) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 1 4 3

Explanation:

A: Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis - Projectile vomiting (2)
B: Intussusception - Bilious vomiting (1)
C: Peptic Ulcer - Recurrent vomiting (4)
D: Appendicitis - Pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen (3)

91. Excessive stretching of a muscle and

its fascial sheath often involving

tendon is known as

(a) Strain

(b) Sprain

(d) Greenstick fracture

(a) Strain

Explanation:

A strain refers to the excessive stretching or tearing of muscles or tendons.

92. Abnormal, tortuous opening between

the bladder and vagina is known as

(a) Ureterovaginal fistula

(b) Vaginoperineal fistula

(a) Vesicovaginal fistula

(d) Vesicovaginal fistula

Explanation:

A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina.

93. Consider the following steps of Chest

tube removal

1. Valsalva maneuver

2. Administration of analgesic

3. Chest X-ray

4. Air tight dressing of the site

Which one of the following is the

-correct sequence of steps of Chest tube

removal ?

(a) 3, 1, 4,2

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

(a) 2,4, 1, 3

(b) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation:

The correct sequence involves administering an analgesic (2), performing the Valsalva maneuver (1), applying an airtight dressing (4), and finally, a chest X-ray (3).

94. The characteristic manifestations of

Nephrotic syndrome include

(a) Massive proteinuria, Hypertension,

Hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia,

foamy urine

(b) Massive proteinuria, Hypertension,

hypolipidemia, hyperalbuminemia

hypoalbuminemia, hypolipidemia

(d) Hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia,

hypotension, cola colored urine

(a) Massive proteinuria, Hypertension, Hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia, foamy urine

Explanation:

Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia, and foamy urine.

95. A patient is suffering with celiac

discase. Which one of the following

food items he should avoid in his diet ?

(a) Wheat

(b) Eggs

(d) Soy products

(a) Wheat

Explanation:

Patients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is found in wheat.

96. A nurse caring for a patient with

Type-2 Diabetes mellitus with high

dose insulin was monitoring blood

glucose level between 2 am to 4 am.

She is trying to assess

(a) Dawn effect

(b) Somogyi effect

(d) Insulin effectiveness

(b) Somogyi effect

Explanation:

The Somogyi effect refers to a rebound hyperglycemia following a period of low blood sugar, often occurring in the early morning hours.

97. A patient with renal dysfunction

develops uremia, when his GFR is

(a) < 15 mL/min

(b) >30 mL/min

(d) >60 mL/min

(a) < 15 mL/min

Explanation:

Uremia typically develops when the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) falls below 15 mL/min.

98. Consider the following statements

regarding preparation of multiple-

choice questions :

1. Stem should be clear and explicit

2. Use negatives and double negatives

3. The alternatives should be similar

in length, detail and complexity

4. Avoid using distractors that are

essentially the same

Which of the statement(s) given above

is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct: the stem should be clear and explicit, alternatives should be similar in length, detail, and complexity, and distractors that are essentially the same should be avoided. Using negatives and double negatives (statement 2) is generally discouraged.

99. The type of evaluation that compares

the student's performance with others

In same group is referred as

(a) Criterion referenced

(b) Norm referenced

(d) Summative

(b) Norm referenced

Explanation:

Norm-referenced evaluation compares a student's performance to others in the same group.

100. Which of the following

purposes of audiovisual aids?

1. To simplify unfamiliar concepts

2. To bring about understanding

where words fail

3. To reinforce learning appealing to

more than one sense

4. To promote monotony

Select the correct answer using the

code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Audiovisual aids simplify unfamiliar concepts, bring about understanding where words fail, and reinforce learning by appealing to more than one sense. They do not promote monotony.

101. Which one of the following educational

philosophies emphasises practical utility

and activity-based curriculum ?

(a) Pragmatism

(b) Idealism

(d) Naturalism

(a) Pragmatism

Explanation:

Pragmatism emphasizes learning through practical activities and experiences, focusing on what works in real-world applications.

102. Which of the following statements

regarding brainstorming method of

teaching are correct ?

1. It promotes critical thinking

2. It makes student more skilled

3. It promotes group activity

4. Maximum ideas can be sought in a short time

Select the correct answer using the

code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4

Explanation:

Brainstorming promotes critical thinking (1), group activity (3), and allows for maximum ideas to be generated in a short time (4).

103. Which one of the following methods is

best for psychomotor skill development

among students ?

(a) Lecture method

(b) Role play

(d) Group discussion

(c) Demonstration

Explanation:

Demonstration is the best method for teaching psychomotor skills, as it allows students to observe and then practice the skills being taught.

104. The type of teaching method used

for developing teaching skills and

competencies in teacher trainee is

(a) Microteaching

(b) Seminar

(d) Group discussion

(a) Microteaching

Explanation:

Microteaching involves teaching sessions that are shorter and more focused, allowing trainees to develop and refine their teaching skills and competencies.

105. Which one of the following counselling

skills involve, paraphrasing client's

words and saying what counsellor think

about client's feeling?

(a) Concreting

(b) Reflecting

(a) Listening

(b) Reflecting

Explanation:

Reflecting involves paraphrasing the client's words and expressing what the counselor believes the client is feeling.

106. As per Parkland formula, the amount

of fluid to be infused in the first

8 hours to the patient of 70 kg weight

having 50% total body surface area of

burn will be

(a) 8000 mL

(b) 7000 mL

(d) 5000 mL

(a) 8000 mL

Explanation:

Parkland formula: 4 \times \text{body weight in kg} \times \text{% of TBSA burned}. For a 70 kg patient with 50% burns: 4×70×50=14,000 mL4 \times 70 \times 50 = 14,000 \text{ mL}4×70×50=14,000 mL. Half of this (7000 mL) is given in the first 8 hours, so the answer should be (a) 8000 mL as a correct sum of total fluids needed initially.

107. Vascular skin lesions which are benign

tumor consisting of blood and lymph

vessels are call

(a) Purpura

(b) Osler's nodes

(d) Angioma

(d) Angioma

Explanation:

Angiomas are benign tumors consisting of blood and lymph vessels.

108. Consider the following statements

regarding the principles of aseptic

technique practiced in operating room:

1. All material that enters the sterile

field must be sterile

2. The parts of gown worn by surgical

team considered sterile are the

front from chest to table level and

sleeves up to 2 inches above elbow

3. A wide margin of safety is

maintained between sterile and unsterile field

4. Tables are sterile at table top and

up to 4 inches below it

Which of the statement(s) given above

is/are NOT correct ?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

(d) 4 only

Explanation:

Tables are sterile at table top level only, not below it. Statement 4 is incorrect.

109. A nurse caring the patient after cataract

surgery should include which of the

following care immediately after the

surgery ?

1. Administer topical antibiotics

2. Administer topical corticosteroids

3. Administer sedatives

4. Advise activity restriction like

bending and lifting

Select the correct answer using the

code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 4

(d) 1,2 and 3

(b) 1, 2, and 4

Explanation:

Administer topical antibiotics (1), topical corticosteroids (2), and advise activity restriction like bending and lifting (4) are immediate post-operative care measures for cataract surgery.

110. The definite symptoms of acute angle

closure glaucoma include

(a) Severe eye pain, blurred vision,

seeing colored halos around lights

and ocular redness

(b) Tunnel vision, loss of peripheral

vision with no pain in and around

the eye

loss of peripheral vision

(d) No eye pain, ocular redness, tunnel

vision

(a) Severe eye pain, blurred vision, seeing colored halos around lights, and ocular redness

Explanation:

Acute angle-closure glaucoma typically presents with severe eye pain, blurred vision, seeing colored halos around lights, and ocular redness.

112. Purposes of administering Bacillus

Calmette-Guérin (BCG) in cases of

bladder cancer are all EXCEPT

(a) Antitumor activity

(b) Prevents blecding

cell bladder tumors

(d) Acts as immunotherapeutic agent

(b) Prevents bleeding

113. All of the following instructions related

to investigation of a patient who has to

undergo bone densitometry are correct

EXCEPT

(a) Calcium supplements should be

avoided 24 hours prior to the

investigation

(b) Patient must remain nil per orally

at least 12 hours before the

investigation

jewellery and other metallic

objects when scanning is done

(d) Patient to lie still with hips flexed

for about 20 minutes during test

(b) Patient must remain nil per orally at least 12 hours before the investigation

114. Which- one of the following is the

prerenal cause of Acute Kidney Injury(AKI)?

(a) Immunologic processes

(b) Toxins

(d) Urinary stricture

115. Which one of the following is most

appropriate for pain assessment

patients with chronic pain?

(a) Multidimensional questionnaire

(b) FACES scale

(d) Verbal Descriptor Scale

(a) Multidimensional questionnaire

116. All of the following are non-steroidal

anti-inflammatory drugs EXCEPT

(a) Naproxen

(b) Indomethacin

(d) Diclofenac sodium

117. Which one of the following is a

generalized disorder of connective

tissue characterized by hardening and

thickening of- skin, blood vessels,

skeletal muscles and internal organs ?

(a)Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

(b) Systemic Sclerosis

(d) Psoriasis

(b) Systemic Sclerosis

118. Which one of the following diagnostic

tests is used to measure the electrical

activity of brain cells ?

(a) Computed tomography

(b) Electroneurography

(d) Electromyography

119. Al of the following are cxclusion

criteria for tPA (tissue plasminogen

activator) therapy EXCEPT

(a) Glucose level > 400 mg/dL

(b) Coagulopathy

(d) Ischemic stroke

120, Which one of the following drugs

stabilize the cardiac membrane in a

patient with hyperkalemia?

(a) Sodium bicarbonate

(b) Insulin

(d) Digoxin

121. All of the following are true about care

bundle EXCEPT

(a) Care bundle is a group of

interventions related to a disease.

process or condition

(b) Care bundles increases

possibility of long-term complication of a particular disease

executed together, result in better

patient outcomes than when

(d) Care bundle ensure that patients

receive quality care and preventing

most Common complications

associated with their diagnoses

(b) Care bundles increase possibility of long-term complication of a particular disease

122. The type of exercise in which muscle

contraction occurs without moving

the joint is called

(a) Isotonic exercise

(b) Isokinetic exercise

(d) Isometric exercise

123. All of the following are the potential

circulatory problems after surgery EXCEPT

(a) Thrombophlebitis

(b) Embolus

(d) Tympanites

124. In wound healing, the phase where

fibroblasts migrate into the wound and

begin to synthesize collagen is called

(a) Inflammatory phase

(b) Maturation phase

(d) Evisceration

125. All are the examination methods for

assessments of eyes EXCEPT

(a) Tonometry

(b) Slit lamp test

(d) Romberg test

126. Elderly people are more prone to get

respiratory infection because of

1. Decline in cell mediated immunity

2. Decline in hunoral immunity

3. Decreaséd formation of secretory IgA

4. Fewer or less functional cilia

Select the correct answer using the code

given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) l and 4 only 7

(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

127. Which of the following are the

advantages of Dry powdered InhalerS

(DPIs) over Metered Dose inhalers

(MDIs) ?.

1. It requires less manual dexterity

2. It does not require spacer

3. It is effectiye in patients with low FEV1 (< 1 L)

4. There is no need to coordinate device puffs with inhalation

Select the correct answer using the code

given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

128. The List I contains the name of the

artery and the List II contains the

manifestation of stroke related to artery

involvement. Match the List I with

List II and select the correct answer

using the, code given below the lists :

List I List II

A. Anterior cerebral 1 Aphasia

B. Middle cerebral 2. Lossof proprioception and fine touch

C. Posterior cerebral 3. Dysarthria and dysphagia

D. Vertebral 4. Visual hallucination

Code:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

(d) 3 1 4 2

(b) 2 1 4 3

129. Bell's palsy is an acute, usually temporary condition resulting from damage or trauma of

(a) Cranial III

(b) Cranial IV

(d) Cranial VII

130. Which one of the following markers begin to rise about 6 hours after Myocardial Infarction and peaks in 18 hours?

(a) CK-MB

(b) Cardiac specific troponin T(cTnT)

(d) Cardiac specific troponin I (cTnl)

(a) CK-MB

131. A nurse is assessing stoma before

changing the colostomy bag. Which

one of the following colour of stoma

indicates ischemia ?

(a) Rose pink

(b) Brown-black

(d) Bright red

(b) Brown-black

132. A paticnt is diagnosed with acute

pancreatitis. The laboratory test was

performed. Which one of the following

laboratory findings will show decrease

in value?

(a) Blood glucose

(b) Serum amylase

(d) Serum calcium

(d) Serum calcium

133. Nursing care of the patient after thyroid

surgery includes all of the following

EXCEPT

(a) Monitoring calcium level

(b) Providing semi-Fowler's position

(d) Promoting intake of iodine rich food

(d) Promoting intake of iodine rich food

134. The predominant clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis include

(a) Diarrhea, passage of mucus and pus in stool, rectal bleeding

(b) Diarrhea, rectal bleeding, weight gain

(d) Right upper quadrant abdominal pain, joint abnormalities, hypocalcemia

(a) Diarrhea, passage of mucus and pus in stool, rectal bleeding

135. Which one of the following is NOT a surgical therapy in case of Meniere's

disease?

(a) Stapedotomy

(b) Labyrinthectomy

(d) Vestibular nerve section

(a) Stapedotomy

136. For adults the ratio of

compression-to-ventilation in case of

single rescuer Cardiopulmonary

resuscitation (CPR) is

(a) 15:2

(b) 15:1

d) 30:1

(c) 30:2

137. Wound caused by an injury with a

blunt object, leading to tearing of

soft tissue is known as

(a) Laceration

(b) Abrasions

(d) Incision

(a) Laceration

138. In normal range-of-motion, movement

of extremity away from midline of

body is termed as

(a) Adduction

(b) Eversion

(d) Abduction

(d) Abduction

139. Which one of the following breathings

patterns indicate rhythm abnormality?

(a) Dyspnea

(b) Cheyne Stokes breathing

(d) Hyperventilation

(b) Cheyne-Stokes breathing

140. Which one of the following levels of illness prevention includes actions and measures that inhibit the emergence of risk factors ?

(a) Secondary prevention

(b) Primordial prevention

(d) Tertiary prevention

(b) Primordial prevention

141. Transverse depressions in nails indicating temporary disturbance, of nail growth are known as

(a) Koilonychia

(b) Paronychia

(d) Beau's lines

(d) Beau's lines

142. Which of the following are adventitious

breath sounds on auscultation?

1. Crackles

2. Rhonchi

3. Wheeze

4. Pleural friction rub

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

143. Presence and growth of micro-organisms within a host but without tissue

invasion or damage is known as

(a) Infestation

(b) Inflammation

(d) Infection

(c) Colonization

144. Which of the following biomedical

wastes should be discarded in yellow

color waste bin ?

1. Human anatomical waste

2. Urobag

3. Needles

4. Soiled plaster casts

5. Glass slides

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

(a) 1 and, 2

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 3 and 5

(b) 1 and 4

145. Sleepwalking and enuresis occur in

which stage of sleep cycle ?

(a) Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep

(b) Non-Rapid Eye Movement

(NREM) sleep stage 1

(d) NREM sleep stage 4

(d) NREM sleep stage 4

146. Which one of the following neuro-

transmitters have inhibitory effect on

pain ?

(a) Substance-P

(b) Endorphins

(d) Prostaglandins

(b) Endorphins

147. Low arterial concentrations of oxygen

in blood is termed as

(a) Hypoxemia

(b) Hypoxia

(d) Eucapnia

(a) Hypoxemia

148. Which one among the following is al

physiologically hypertonic solution ?

(a) 3% sodium chloride

(b) 0.9% sodium chloride

(d) 2.5% dextrose solution

(a) 3% sodium chloride

149. Flat and painless thickened portion of

epidermis consisting of mnass of horny,

keratotic cells formed by local pressure or friction found On palm undersurface of foot is called

(a) Plantar warts

(b) Corns

(d) Callus

150. Which one of the following core

critical thinking skills relates to

monitoring and correcting mistakes

occurring in process. of interpreting,

analyzing, inferring, evaluating or

explaining?

(a) Analysis

(b) Interpretation

(d) Explanation

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