RRB Paramedical 2019: Practice Junior Health Inspector Previous Year Paper with Answers
For cracking RRB Paramedical 2019 Exam with high score, candidates must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects (professional ability) for which they are applying this year. It will help them in improving their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this article we have shared the RRB Paramedical Junior Health Inspector Previous Year Paper alongwith their answers.
RRB Paramedical 2019: Junior Health Inspector Previous Year Paper with Answers
1. A sub-center is meant to be there for every ……. population in Hilly areas
(a) 1000
(b) 3000
(c) 5000
(d) 10000
Answer: (b)
2. One primary health center should be there for every …….. rural population in the plains
(a) 10000
(b) 20000
(c) 30000
(d) 40000
Answer: (c)
3. Hind Kusht Nivaran Sangh is a voluntary agency related to the disease:
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Leprosy
(c) Malaria
(d) Filaria
Answer: (b)
4. The colour of the center square in the vaccine vial monitor in a well stored polio vaccine should be:
(a) White
(b) Violet
(c) Blue
(d) Pink
Answer: (a)
5. The world Health Day is celebrated on
(a) March 1st
(b) April 7th
(c) July 1st
(d) December 1st
Answer: (b)
6. GOBI campaign of the UNICEF includes all except:
(a) Growth monitoring
(b) Observation
(c) Breast feeding
(d) Immunization
Answer: (b)
7. The international agency providing support for the National Blindness Control Programme is:
(a) DANIDA
(b) SIDA
(c) USAID
(d) CARE
Answer: (a)
8. Major symptoms of an AIDS patient is:
(a) Weight loss
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Fever
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
9. The ideal weight for an adult person is calculated on the basis of his:
(a) Age
(b) Height
(c) Economic status
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
10. Risk factors for developing coronary heart disease include:
(a) Smoking
(b) Hypertension
(c) Serum Cholesterol
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
11. The salt intake per day should be kept to a limit of:
(a) 1 gm daily
(b) 5 gm daily
(c) 10 gm daily
(d) 15 gm daily
Answer: (d)
12. A normal blood pressure is said to be about:
(a) 300 / 200
(b) 200 / 150
(c) 120 / 80
(d) 70 / 40
Answer: (c)
13. Pulse rate of babies is:
(a) More than adults
(b) Less than adults
(c) Same as adults
(d) No fixed pattern
Answer: (a)
14. Normal respiratory rates in adults is about:
(a) 5/ min
(b) 10/min
(c) 17/min
(d) 27/min
Answer: (c)
15. Streptococcal throat infection can later lead to:
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Leprosy
(c) Rheumatic heart Disease
(d) Malaria
Answer: (c)
16. India’s population at present is about:
(a) Ten Thousand
(b) One Million
(c) One Billion
(d) Ten Billion
Answer: (c)
17. While calculating birth rates the denominator used is:
(a) live births
(b) mid-year population
(c) census population
(d) any of the above
Answer: (b)
18. The objective of National population policy is to bring the total fertility rates to replacement level by:
(a) 2005
(b) 2010
(c) 2015
(d) 2020
Answer: (b)
19. A woman is expected to attend the antenatal clinic at least ….. / month during the first 7 months:
(a) one
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) four times
Answer: (a)
20. On an average a normal healthy woman should gain about ….. kg of weight during pregnancy
(a) 5 kg
(b) 12 kg
(c) 20 kg
(d) 30 kg
Answer: (b)
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21. An unimmunised mother should be given ….. doses of Tetanus toxoid during pregnancy
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer: (b)
22. The extra amount of calories required during pregnancy is:
(a) 300 Kcal
(b) 440 Kcal
(c) 550 Kcal
(d) 600 Kcal
Answer: (a)
23. At one year of age a baby should weigh around:
(a) 5 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 15 kg
(d) 20 kg
Answer: (b)
24. As per Baby friendly hospital initiative breast feeding by the mother after normal delivery should be started within:
(a) one hour
(b) five hours
(c) 10 hours
(d) 24 hours
Answer: (a)
25. Under the ICDS programme the amount of protein provided for children between 1-6yrs is:
(a) 5 gms
(b) 10 gms
(c) 15 gms
(d) 20 gms
Answer: (d)
26. Father of medicine is:
(a) Hippocrates
(b) Aesculapius
(c) Susrutha
(d) Thomas Syndenham
Answer: (a)
27. James Lind is related to the disease:
(a) small pox
(b) scurvy
(c) scabies
(d) scoliosis
Answer: (b)
28. DPT vaccination is related to the disease:
(a) Polio
(b) Measles
(c) Pertussis
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
29. Chicken pox is caused due to a:
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungus
(d) Protozoa
Answer: (a)
30. Measles vaccine is given under the National Immunization Programme
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 15 months
Answer: (c)
31. The classical triad of Rubella include:
(a) Cataract
(b) Cardiac Malformation
(c) Deafness
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
32. BCG vaccination is given to protect against:
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Meningitis
(c) Chicken pox
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
33. Oral polio vaccine:
(a) Live vaccine
(b) Killed vaccine
(c) Freeze dried vaccine
(d) Recombinant vaccine
Answer: (a)
34. Hepatitis A virus is mainly transmitted through:
(a) facial-oral route
(b) parental route
(c) sexual transmission
(d) blood transmission
Answer: (a)
35. Rice water stools is seen in:
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Salmonellosis
(d) Botulism
Answer: (a)
36. DOTS is related to the disease:
(a) Leprosy
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Hepatitis
(d) Malaria
Answer: (b)
37. Ancylostomiasis is the other name for
(a) Hook worm
(b) Round worm
(c) Tape worm
(d) Guinea worm
Answer: (a)
38. The worm infestation eliminated from India is:
(a) Hook worm
(b) Round worm
(c) Tape worm
(d) Guinea worm
Answer: (d)
39. Dengue fever is transmitted by:
(a) aedes
(b) culex
(c) anopheles
(d) mansonia
Answer: (a)
40. Malaria is caused by:
(a) bacteria
(b) protozoan
(c) virus
(d) fungus
Answer: (b)
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41. The disease not present in India is
(a) dengue
(b) yellow fever
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) kyasanur forest disease
Answer: (b)
42. Leptospirosis is transmitted through:
(a) rat urine
(b) rat bite
(c) mosquito
(d) dog bite
Answer: (a)
43. Beef tape worm is:
(a) Taenia saginata
(b) Taenia solium
(c) Echinococcus granulosis
(d) Guenia worm
Answer: (a)
44. Trachoma is a disease related to:
(a) eyes
(b) ears
(c) nose
(d) throat
Answer: (a)
45. Leprosy should be treated for a minimum period of:
(a) Life long
(b) 20 yrs
(c) 5 yrs
(d) 6-12 months
Answer: (d)
46. Gonorrhea is a disease transmitted through
(a) food
(b) needle prick
(c) blood transfusion
(d) sexually
Answer: (d)
47. Modifiable risk factors in case of hypertension include all except
(a) age
(b) obesity
(c) salt intake
(d) alcohol intake
Answer: (a)
48. Rheumatic heart disease is related to the condition:
(a) throat infection
(b) ear infection
(c) eye infection
(d) leg infection
Answer: (a)
49. Goiter is related to the gland:
(a) pancreas
(b) thyroid
(c) parotid
(d) adrenals
Answer: (b)
50. Diabetes is caused due to deficiency of:
(a) insulin
(b) ptyalin
(c) thyroxin
(d) glucagon
Answer: (a)
51. Most common cause of blindness in India is:
(a) cataract
(b) glaucoma
(c) refractive index
(d) vitamin A deficiency
Answer: (a)
52. Barrier method of contraception is:
(a) condom
(b) intraâ€â•oeuterine device
(c) oral pills
(d) injectables
Answer: (a)
53. One gram of protein will give …. Kcal/gm
(a) 4
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 15
Answer: (a)
54. The reference protein is:
(a) egg
(b) milk
(c) meat
(d) fish
Answer: (a)
55. Limiting Amino acid in plus is:
(a) lysine
(b) threonine
(c) methionine
(d) valine
Answer: (c)
56. The amount of protein required by an Indian adult is …… grm protein/kg body wt.
(a) 0.5
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 10
Answer: (b)
57. Saturated fatty acids are all except
(a) lauric
(b) palmitic
(c) stearic
(d) oleic
Answer: (d)
58. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
(a) rickets
(b) scurvy
(c) night blindness
(d) all of the above
Answer: (a)
59. Pellagra is a deficiency disease caused due to the deficiency of
(a) riboflavin
(b) thiamine
(c) niacin
(d) folate
Answer: (c)
60. Rich source of vitamin A is
(a) ripe papaya
(b) ripe mango
(c) green leafy vegetables
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
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61. The mineral that is associated with anemia is:
(a) calcium
(b) iron
(c) magnesium
(d) sodium
Answer: (b)
62. Infections primarily of animals that can be transmitted through milk is all except
(a) tuberculosis
(b) brucellosis
(c) Q fever
(d) malaria
Answer: (d)
63. The addition of colouring agents to food is called
(a) food additives
(b) food adulteration
(c) food fortification
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
64. As per the Mid-day meal programme the meals should supply at least …… of the total energy requirement
(a) 1/3rd
(b)1/4th
(c) ½
(d) 3/4th
Answer: (a)
65. The type of learning relating to skills is:
(a) cognitive
(b) affective
(c) psychomotor
(d) all of the above
Answer: (c)
66. The average population of a village in India is estimated to be:
(a) 5000
(b) 2500
(c) 1500
(d) 550
Answer: (d)
67. The amount of bleaching powder required to disinfect 1000 liters of water is
(a) 1.5 gms
(b) 2.5 gms
(c) 3.5 gms
(d) 4.5 gms
Answer: (b)
68. Hardness of water can be caused due to
(a) chlorides
(b) sulphates
(c) nitrates
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
69. Free and combined chlorine in water can be determined using:
(a) orthotoludine test
(b) methylene blue test
(c) phosphatase test
(d) all of the above
Answer: (a)
70. In a house window area should be at least …. of the floor area
(a) 1/20th
(b) 1/10th
(c) 1/5th
(d) 1/2
Answer: (c)
71. Overcrowding is said to exist if …. no of persons over 9 yrs of age not husband and wife, of opposite sexes are obliged to sleep in the same room
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer: (a)
72. The method of waste disposal in which waste is disposed along with night soil is known as
(a) dumping
(b) tipping
(c) composting
(d) incineration
Answer: (c)
73. The mosquito which lays its eggs on the leaves of certain aquatic plants is
(a) aedes
(b) anopheles
(c) mansonia
(d) culex
Answer: (c)
74. The tiger mosquito is
(a) anopheles
(b) culex
(c) aedes
(d) mansonia
Answer: (c)
75. Biological control of mosquitoes is by using
(a) minerals oils
(b) fishes
(c) insecticides
(d) all of the above
Answer: (b)
76. Lindane is a:
(a) DDT
(b) BHC
(c) malathion
(d) fention
Answer: (b)
77. Zinc phosphide is an efficient
(a) rodenticide
(b) insecticide
(c) bactericide
(d) disinfectant
Answer: (a)
78. Bird flu is caused by:
(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) fungus
(d) protozoa
Answer: (a)
79. The normal human body contains
(a) 20 chromosomes
(b) 25 chromosomes
(c) 36 chromosomes
(d) 46 chromosomes
Answer: (d)
80. Among the blood groups the blood group considered as the universal donor is
(a) A group
(b) B group
(c) AB group
(d) 0 group
Answer: (d)
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81. The sex chromosome composition of XO is related to
(a) turners syndrome
(b) klienfelters syndrome
(c) super female
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
82. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a disease related to
(a) blood groups
(b) red blood cells
(c) white blood cells
(d) platelets
Answer: (a)
83. Births and deaths should be registered with in
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 30 days
Answer: (c)
84. The census is taken at intervals of
(a) 5 yrs
(b) 10 yrs
(c) 15 yrs
(d) 20 yrs
Answer: (b)
85. The diseases notifiable to the WHO under the international Regulation Act are all except
(a) cholera
(b) plague
(c) yellow fever
(d) diphtheria
Answer: (d)
86. The best method to present data to the man on the street is:
(a) bar chart
(b) pie chart
(c) pictogram
(d) frequency polygon
Answer: (c)
87. When a set of numbers is arranged in ascending or descending order and the center number is taken it is called a:
(a) mean
(b) median
(c) mode
(d) range
Answer: (b)
88. Socratic method of communication is
(a) one-way
(b) two-way
(c) verbal
(d) non-verbal
Answer: (b)
89. The recommended illumination required for casual reading is
(a) 50 lux
(b) 100 lux
(c) 300 lux
(d) none of the above
Answer: (b)
90. A daily exposure of …dB is about the limit people can tolerate without substantial damage to bearing
(a) 35
(b) 55
(c) 65
(d) 85
Answer: (d)
91. The best method that can be used to teach mothers on how to use oral rehydration solution is
(a) Lecture
(b) Flash cards
(c) Demonstration
(d) Panel discussion
Answer: (c)
92. Message in a poster created for health education should be
(a) short
(b) simple
(c) direct
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
93. Resource for health planning are:
(a) man power
(b) money
(c) material
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d)
94. The committee that visualized the development of primary health center is:
(a) Bhore Committee
(b) Mukerji Committee
(c) Chadah Committee
(d) Shrivastav Committee
Answer: (a)
95. Zila parishad is at the:
(a) Village level
(b) Town level
(c) Block level
(d) District level
Answer: (d)
96. The drug used for tuberculosis include all except
(a) dapsone
(b) rifampicin
(c) ethambutol
(d) isoniazid
Answer: (a)
97. Crude death rate in India as per the latest population statistics is:
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 8
Answer: (d)
98. Infant mortality rate in Kerala is about ….. / 1000 live births
(a) 67
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 14
Answer: (d)
99. Sex ratio in Kerala is …… / 1000 males
(a) 850
(b) 933
(c) 1000
(d) 1058
Answer: (d)
100. As per the ICDS scheme an Anganwadi worker is meant to be there for every….population
(a) 500
(b) 1000
(c) 3000
(d) 5000
Answer: (b)
practice makes the man perfect! The more you will practice, the more accuracy you will gain which will eventually lead you to a high score in the exam. Practice will help you in avoiding silly mistakes and making unnecessary guess works while attempting RRB Paramedical 2019 Exam. Therefore, practicing previous year papers will help you in achieving accuracy and high score in AIIMS / ESIC/ DSSSB/ CGVYAPAM/ MPNRHM/RRB Paramedical 2019 @ ALL NURSING Exam.
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