Practice Test
1. Receiving cannot accept a specimen unless it has:
a. A correct, legible label
b. An uncontaminated, signed requisition with billing information
c. An intact container with correct media
d. All of the above
2. A laboratory refrigerator used to store volatile, flammable liquids can hold:
a. 120 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids
b. 180 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids
c. 200 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids
d. 50 gallons of class I, II, and IIIA liquids
3. Disease incidence predicts:
a. How probable it is a patient will develop a disease, and its etiology
b. How likely a test result is to be right or wrong, given certain variables
c. How likely the patient with a negative test really does not have the condition
d. How likely the patient with a positive test result really has the condition
4. Beer’s law in spectrophotometry
a. Means a transparent sample transmits 0% light
b. Only applies if absorbance is between 0.1 and 1.0
c. Means an opaque sample transmits 100% light
d. Uses a visible spectrum from 340 nm to 500 nm
5. Naming bacteria by looking at their size and shape under the microscope, and the colony morphology on media is:
a. Differential identification
b. Numeric taxonomy
c. Presumptive identification
d. TaqMan electrophoresis
6. OSHA allows ungloved phlebotomy only if:
a. The experienced phlebotomist working in a volunteer blood donor center agrees.
b. The phlebotomist’s skin is intact and the patient is cooperative.
c. Both a and b
d. The patient is an infant.
7. The hospital department that studies alcohol, drugs, poisons, and heavy metals is:
a. Serology/Immunology
b. Toxicology
c. Cytology
d. Endocrinology
8. A hemoglobin electrophoresis result of adult hemoglobin (HbA) or HbA2 means the patient has:
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Fetal hemoglobin
c. Normal hemoglobin
d. Hemolytic anemia
9. US law overrides the patient’s right to confidentiality if:
a. The patient has a sexually transmitted disease or tuberculosis (TB)
b. The caregiver is likely to be infected
c. Authorities suspect child abuse or neglect under CAPTA
d. All of the above
10. The recall rate is also known as the:
a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Aliquot
d. Circadian rhythm
11. Biochemistry usually requires:
a. Lavender, light blue, and black blood collection tubes
b. Red, pink, and yellow blood collection tubes
c. Green, gray, and marbled serum-separator tube (SST) blood collection tubes
d. Navy, purple, and brown blood collection tubes
12. A normal kidney function study shows a:
a. BUN to creatinine ratio between 15:1 and 20:1
b. Alkaline phosphatase 30 to 85 international milliunits/mL
c. Serum aspartate aminotransferase 5 to 40 international units/L
d. Amylase 56 to 190 international units/L
13. A newborn’s jaundice could be caused by:
a. Erythroblastosis fetalis
b. Kernicterus
c. Physiologic jaundice from poor fluid intake
d. All of the above
14. Lipids from carbohydrate and alcohol sources are:
a. Anions
b. Triglycerides
c. Cholesterol
d. Eluent
15. When serum proteins indicates disease, the doctor usually follows up with:
a. Total protein, albumin, and globulin
b. Ascites
c. Protein electrophoresis
d. Bilirubin
16. Elevated creatine phosphokinase (CPK) could mean myocardial infarction, but could also mean:
a. Alcoholism, hypothyroidism, cardioversion, or clofibrate use
b. Aspirin, burns, warfarin, or sickle cell anemia
c. Lung disease or congestive heart failure
d. Crushing injury, bowel infarction, or opiate use
17. A patient whose cortisol level is high at both 8:00 a.m. and 4:00 p.m. likely has:
a. Addison disease
b. Natriuretic factor
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Cushing syndrome
18. Decreased sodium in the blood is:
a. Hypernatremia, often from diabetes, burns, or Cushing syndrome
b. Hyponatremia, often from vomiting and diarrhea, furosemide, or Addison disease
c. Hyperkalemia, often from acidosis, spironolactone, or kidney failure
d. Hypokalemia, often from alkalosis, stomach cancer, or eating too much licorice
19. CPK in a patient with a myocardial infarction will:
a. Rise 6 hours after heart attack, peak in 18 hours, and return to baseline in 3 days
b. Rise 6 to 10 hours after heart attack, peak at 12 to 48 hours, and return to baseline in 4 days
c. Rise 24 to 72 hours after heart attack, peak in 4 days, and return to baseline in 14 days
d. Cause a corresponding rise in alpha-fetoprotein
20. The panic value for blood pH is:
a. 7.35
b. Less than 7.20
c. 80 to 100 torr
d. 4.0 to 8.0 mcg/L
21. The liver destroys old blood cells at the end of their lifespan of:
a. 120 days
b. 30 days
c. 1 week
d. 90 days
22. An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how blood cells with anticoagulant aggregate in a Westergren or Wintrobe tube in 1 hour because of changes in plasma proteins, which is known as :
a. Retic count
b. Serendipity
c. Fibrinolysis
d. Rouleaux formation
23. If the doctor suspects the patient has Hodgkin disease, then the correct stain for the smear is:
a. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
b. Sudan black B (SBB)
c. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP)
d. Lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB)
24. A battlement scan is preferable to a wedge scan for studying bone marrow because:
a. Battlement technique distributes cells evenly across the slide
b. Lymphocytes concentrate in the feather
c. Wedge technique causes leukocytes to pool in different sections of the slide
d. Both a and c
25. Most coagulation (clotting) disorders are due to:
a. Phase I problems
b. Factor VIII deficiency
c. Fibrinolysis
d. Factor III distress call from the injury site
26. If the patient’s PT and PTT are longer than 70 seconds, then check if _______ caused a false result:
a. Ferritin
b. Lupus inhibitor antibody (LA)
c. Platelet antibody
d. Intrinsic factor
27. Confirm a fungal infection found through microscopy with a:
a. Latex serology for cryptococcal antigen
b. Fungal serology titer of more than 1:32 that increases x4 or more 3 weeks later
c. Complement fixation for coccidiomycosis and histoplasmosis
d. Immunodiffusion for blastomycosis
28. Two modern flocculation tests that replace the older Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test for syphilis screening are:
a. Plasmacrit test (PCT) and rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
b. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Treponemal-specific microhemagglutination (MHA-TP) and T. pallidum particle agglutination test (TP-PA)
d. Captia Syphilis-G enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and cold agglutinins
29. To make a dilution of ½ or 1:2
a. Dilute ½ mL of serum with 2 mL of saline
b. Dilute 1 mL of serum with 2 mL of saline
c. Test undiluted serum for antibody/antigen reaction against a control
d. Dilute 1 mL of serum with 1 mL of saline
30. A Monospot test uses ingredients from:
a. Guinea pig, cow, and horse
b. Sheep, pig, and horse
c. Dog, sheep, and rabbit
d. Fish, cat, and ferret
31. A prozone phenomenon occurs when performing an antibody titer on a patient with:
a. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
b. Reynaud disease
c. Both syphilis and HIV
d. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies
32. An Rh- mother who is pregnant with the child of an Rh+ father needs Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM):
a. Even if the pregnancy ends in miscarriage or abortion
b. At 26 to 28 weeks of pregnancy and again within 72 hours after her delivery.
c. During her labor
d. Both a and b
33. If your patient has a mild transfusion reaction:
a. Eosinophilia, hypocalcemia, leukopenia, and pancytopenia may occur
b. Dyscrasia, leukocytosis, hypercalcemia, and leukemia may occur
c. Anemia, hypokalemia, glycosuria, and pancytopenia may occur
d. Hemolysis, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, and hemoglobinuria may occur
34. Type O blood has:
a. B antigen and anti-A antibody
b. A antigen and anti-B antibody
c. No A or B antigens and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies
d. No A or B antigens and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies
35. Choose the top priority transfusion patient from the list below.
a. Cardiac surgery patient who lost more than 1,200 mL of blood
b. Trauma patient with a hemoglobin of 5 g/dL
c. Pernicious anemia patient
d. Hemophiliac boy at regular clinic visit
36. Reject a transfusion request when:
a. Recipient blood specimen is hemolyzed
b. The patient armband does not have a unique identifier
c. Donor blood is lipemic, clotted, or contains foreign objects
d. All of the above
37. To diagnose a urinary tract infection correctly, the microbiology lab requires a:
a. Midstream urine collection (MSU)
b. Witnessed urine collection
c. 24-hour urine collection
d. Random urine collection
38. When assisting the doctor with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) collection, you need 4 tubes for:
a. Cell count, glucose and protein, gram stain and culture, virology/mycology/cytology.
b. Immunoelectrophoresis
c. Fungus, oncology, and SMA-12
d. Neutrophilia, lymphocytophilia, glutamine, and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
39. Fusobacteria cause:
a. Botulism and Listeria infections
b. Lyme disease and Helicobacter pylori stomach ulcers
c. Pyorrhea and Lemierre syndrome
d. Chlamydia genital infections and pneumonia
40. The type of media required to incubate a TB culture correctly is:
a. Tinsdale
b. Sheep blood agar
c. Modified Wadowsky-Yee (MWY)
d. Löwenstein-Jensen (LJ) egg
41. To find parasites under the microscope, set the magnification to:
a. 40x
b. 10x
c. 1000x
d. 400x
42. Identify the parasite that must be reported to Public Health authorities:
a. Crypto (Cryptosporidium parvum)
b. Hookworm (Ancylostoma duodenale)
c. Tapeworm (Cestoda)
d. Pinworm (Enterobius)
43. To identify motile trophozoites:
a. Examine blood smears and blood antigens
b. Perform a string test
c. Use Snap n’ Stain on sputum
d. Wet mount fresh, liquid stool with LPCB stain
44. Public Health requires you to keep positive parasitology samples preserved for :
a. The patient’s lifetime
b. One year
c. Ten years
d. One month
45. Shine a Wood’s lamp over the patient’s skin to help you collect:
a. Malaria specimens
b. Public Health specimens
c. Toxicology specimens
d. Mycology specimens
46. Identify the positive dipstick test that would indicate an E. coli infection:
a. Leukocytes
b. Protein
c. Ketones
d. Nitrites
47. A pregnancy test may be ordered for a man with:
a. Testicular cancer
b. Prostatitis
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Peyronie disease
48. Normal urinary output for a 24-hour urine test is:
a. 4 quarts
b. 150 to 500 mL
c. 30 liters
d. 750 to 2,000 mL
49. Urate crystals found during microscopic urinalysis indicate:
a. Urea-splitting bacteria are present
b. Poisoning
c. Gout
d. Hyperparathyroidism
50. Patients with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) often have:
a. Cirrhosis and hepatitis
b. Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) and hypertension
c. Hematuria and uroliths
d. Melena and hematochezia
ANSWER=
1=D
2=A
3=A
4=B
5=C
6=C
7=B
8=C
9=D
10=A
11=C
12= A
13=D
14=B
15= C
16= A
17=D
18=B
19=A
20=B
21=A
22=D
23=C
24=D
25=A
26=B
27=B
28=A
29=D
30=A
31=C
32=D
33=A
34=C
35=B
36=D
37=A
38=A
39=C
40=D
41=B
42=A
43=D
44=B
45=D
46=D
47=A
48=D
49=C
50=C
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