Medical lab technologist Mcqs Book
Chapter 4
Bacteriology
Q1=What disease the Nesser will produce?
a. Mumps
b. Rubella
c. Polio
d. Measles
Answer- D
Q2= The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is
a. Budding
b. Bursting
c. Binary fission
d. Binary fusion
Ans- C
Q3= The pigment present in red algae is
a. Rhodochrome
b. Fucoxanthin
c. Chlorophyll only
d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin
Ans- D
Q4=Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is
a. Photosynthesis
b. Chemosynthesis
c. Breakdown of organic compounds
d. Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
Ans-C
Q5= Meosomes are the part of
a. Plasma membrane
b. ER
c. Lysosomes
d. Golgi
Ans-A
Q6= Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium
b. Staphylococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. None of these
Ans- A
Q7=Bacterial ribosomes are composed of
a. Protein and DNA
b. Protein and mRNA
c. Protein and rRNA
d. Protein and tRNA
Ans-C
Q8= Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is characteristic feature of the disease
a. Rubella
b. Mumps
c. Measles(rubeola)
d. Influenza
Ans- C
Q9=A bacterium containing prophage is called as
a. Lytic
b. Lysogen
c. Lytogen
d. None of these
Ans- B
Q10=The most infectious food borne disease is
a. Tetanus
b. Dysentery
c. Gas gangrene
d. Botulism
Ans- D
Q11=In bacteria pigment bearing structures are
a. Chloroplast
b. Protoplast
c. Sphaeroplast
d. Chromatophores
Ans-D
Q12=The test used for detection of typhoid fever
a. WIDAL test
b. ELISA
c. Rosewaller test
d. Westernblotting
Ans- A
Q13= Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as
a. Fried-Landers bacillus
b. Kleb’s Lofflers bacillus
c. Frchs bacillus
d. Koch’s bacillus
Ans- B
Q14=Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. Birds
b. Animals
c. Man
d. All of them
Ans- B
Q15= The viruses that attack bacteria are
a. Bacterial viruses
b. Bacterial pathogens
c. Bacteriophages
d. Various
Ans-C
Q16= Rod shaped bacteria are known as
a. Cocci
b. Comma forms
c. Bacilli
d. Plemorphic froms
Ans- C
Q17= All the groups of bacteria have cell wall
a. Mycobacteria
b. Mycoplasmas
c. Clostridia
d. Rickettsia
Ans- B
Q18=Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by
a. Fimbria
b. Flagella
c. Cytoskeleton
d. Both a and b
Ans- D
Q19=Which of the following are reservoirs for human infection?
A- Food and water
B- Humans
C-Animals
D- All of the above
Ans- D
20-Which of the following are true about viruses?
A- They are not composed of the cells
B- As virions they cannot metabolize nutrients
C- They contain DNA or RNA
D- All of the above
Ans- D
Q21-Ethanol is one of the most commonly used disinfectants, which concentration of ethanol is most effective for this purpose?
A- 100%
B-70%
C-50%
D-30%
Ans- B
Q22-What organism is considered an index of fecal pollution of drinking water supplies?
A- Rota virus
B- E.Coli
C- Salmonella spp.
D- Hepatitis E virus
Ans- B
Q23-Both mycobacterium tuberculosis and streptococcus pneumoniae:
A- Are acquired by inhalation
B- Have cell walls that contain a high content of mycolic acid
C- Have polysaccharide capsules
D-Stay in lung and rarely, if ever enter the blood stream
Ans- A
Q24-Which of the following bacteria is rarely associated with urinary tract infections?
A- E.Coli
B- Enterobacter spp
C-Proteus spp.
D-Shigella spp.
Ans- D
Q25-Stool culture is primarily recommended when the complaint is:
A- Bloody diarrhea (dysentery, enterocolitis)
B-Watery diarrhea
C-For both bloody and watery diarrhea
D-An indication of anaerobic infection
Anns- C
Q26-Throat culture is not useful to diagnose:
A- Streptococal sore throat
B- Dipheheria
C-Thrush
D- Pneumonia
Ans- C
Q27-Which of the following gram negative rod is not a blood borne bacterial pathogen?
A-Shigella spp.
B-E Coli
C-Klebsiella pneumoniae
D-Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans- A
Q28-Which of the following bacteria is not most important causes of acute bacterial
A-Neisseria meningitidis
B-Streptococcus pneumoniae
C-Haemophilus influenzae
D-Streptococcus pyogens
Ans- D
Q29-One characteristic of typhoid fever is that after people become infected they:
A- Recover completely
B- Feel fine but become carriers
C-Have S.Typhi colonize their GIT
D-All of the above
Ans- D
Q30=Histones are found in
a. Prokaryotes
b. Eukaryotes
c. Viruses
d. None of these
Ans- B
Q31= Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of
a. Polypeptide
b. Polynucleotides
c. Polysaccharides
d. Polypeptides or polysaccharides
Ans- D
Q32=Bacterial spores are
a. Weakly acid fast
b. Strongly acid fast
c. Alcohol fast
d. Non acid fast
Ans- A
Q33=Archaeo bacteria are known as
a. Halophiles
b. Red extreme halophiles
c. Osmophiles
d. Extreme thermophiles
Ans- B
Q34=Infection that results in pus formation are called
a. Focal infection
b. Acute infection
c. Pyogenic infection
d. Chronic infection
Ans-C
Q35=Anthrax is a
a. Vector borne
b. Zoonotic infection
c. Wound bone
d. Soil borne
Ans-B
Ans-
Q36=Ziehl – Neelson stain is a ______
a. Simple stain
b. Counter stain
c. Differential stain
d. None of them
Ans- C
Q37=Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of bacteria?
a. BCG
b. TAB
c. Polio
d. Cholera
Ans- A
Q38=Salmonella typhi is the causative organism of -
A- Undulent Fever
B-Remittent Fever
C- Enteric Fever
D- Dengu Fever
Ans- C
Q39= The Following Infections Caused by E.coli except-
A- UTI
B- Septic wound infections
C- Diarrhea
D- Meningitis
Ans- D
Q40- Rapid bacterial growth phase is known as
a. Log
b. Lag
c. Lack
d. None of these
Ans- A
Q41= Which bacterial type appears spiral or helically coiled?
(a) spirillum
(b) bacillus
(c) coccus
(d) all of the above
Ans- A
Q42 = What may be a reason for the relative success of bacterial forms?
(a) a large ratio of surface area to volume
(b) rapid metabolic rates
(c) rapid multiplication in number of offspring
(d) all of the above
Answer: D
Q43: Which of the following structures is found in a bacterial cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus
(c) ribosomes
Answer: C
Q44: The gram stain, which is used to differentiate bacterial cells, is
based primarily on
(a) the protein content in the respective bacterial cell wall,
(b) the carbohydrate content in the respective bacterial cell wall,
(c) the lipid content in the respective bacterial cell wall,
(d) the diffusion rate of staining fluid through the bacterial cell wall.
Answer: C
Q45: How does penicillin inhibit bacterial proliferation?
(a) inhibition of bacterial wall synthesis
(b) inhibition of ribosomal function in the bacteria
(c) inhibition of the bacterial glycolytic pathway
(d) inhibition of the electron transport in the bacterium
Answer: A
Q46: Which bacteria would function best in hot temperatures (45 – 60°C)?
(a) psychrophiles
(c) mesophiles
Answer: B
Q47: What is the optimum pH for growth in most bacteria?
(a) 2.5 – 3.5
(c) 4.5 – 5.5
(d) 6.5 – 7.5
Answer: D
Q48: What is the correct sequence in the phases of the bacterial growth curve?
(a) lag, exponential, stationary, death
(b) exponential, stationary, lag, death
(c) exponential, lag, stationary, death
(d) stationary, exponential, lag, death
Answer: A
Q49: Which of the following is not considered a measure of growth of bacteria?
(a) the size of the bacterium cell in the culture
(b) the number of bacterial cells in the culture
(c) the cell mass of the bacterial culture
(d) the amount of cell activity in the culture
Answer: A
Q50: After incubation of two bacteria cultures for 132 minutes, the
number of bacteria present is 20,000. What is the generation time?
(a) 2 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
Answer: C
Q51: The determination of generation time is based on the premise that
the culture number doubles in each generation. During which
growth phase does this premise hold true?
(a) lag phase (b) stationary phase
(c) exponential phase (d) death phase
Answer: C
Q52: A mutant bacterial strain which requires a supplement of nutrients
not required by the original cell type is known as a(n)
(a) prototroph (b) chemotroph
(c) phototroph (d) auxotroph
Answer: D
Q53: During conjugation, what is transferred from the Hfr bacterium to the F− bacterium?
(a) the sex factor (F factor)
(b) portions of the Hfr chromosome
(c) the sex factor and portions of the Hfr chromosome
(d) nothing is transferred
Answer: B
Q54: Which statement correctly describes one of the phases in viral
infection of bacteria?
(a) Host cells have no specific receptor sites to which
bacteriophages(viruses) attach.
(b) The protein coat and DNA of the bacteriophage enter through
the enzymatically weakened bacterial cell wall.
(c) Viral specific mRNA produced within the host bacterium attach
to the host ribosome, where viral protein synthesis takes place.
(d) The extent of destruction of host tissues is always a good judge
of a successful viral infection.
Answer: C
Q55: Which of the following constituents are needed by the RNA virus to
synthesize proteins in the host?
(a) viral DNA
(b) reverse transcriptase and amino acids
(c) viral RNA and host ribosomes
(d)host DNA polymerase and host ribosomes
Answer: C
Q73=Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. glycocalyx—adherence
b. pili—reproduction
c. cell wall—toxin
d. cell wall—protection
e. plasma membrane— transport
Ans-B
Q74=Which of the following is/are not part of a eukaryotic cell structure?
a. lysozymes
b. mitochondria
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. ribosomes
e. capsules
Ans= E
Q75= Which of the following media components is required for the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria?
a. sodium borohydride
b. sodium thioglycolate
c. phenol
d. methylene blue
e. palladium
Ans-A
Q76= A medium with mannitol and a high salt concentration can be
used for isolating
a. Staphylococcus.
b. Candida.
c. Escherichia.
d. Thermovibrio.
e. Campylobacter
Ans- B
