Medical Lab Technologist Mcqs
Chapter 5
Clinical Virology
Q1= Picornaviruses which type Viruse?
A- DNA
B- RNA
C- Proteins
D- None
Ans- B
Q2= A viral species is not defined on the basis of the disease symptoms it
causes. The best example of this is
a. polio.
b. rabies.
c. hepatitis.
d. chickenpox and shingles.
e. measles.
Ans- C
Q3=Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta?
a. Borrelia burgdorferi
b. cytomegalovirus
c. Spirillum minus
d. anthrax
e. Yersinia
Ans- B
Q4= Regarding viral vaccines, which one of the following is the MOST accurate?
(A) Killed vaccines induce a longer lasting response than do live, attenuated vaccines.
(B) Killed vaccines are no longer used in this country because they do not induce secretory IgA.
(C) Killed vaccines induce a broader range of immune responses than do live, attenuated vaccines.
(D) Killed vaccines are safer to give to immunocompromised patients than are live, attenuated vaccines.
Ans-D
Q5= Individuals who have had an anaphylactic reaction to egg proteins should NOT receive which one of the following vaccines?
(A) Hepatitis A vaccine
(B) Hepatitis B vaccine
(C) Influenza vaccine gastrointestinal
(D) Polio vaccine
(E) Rabies vaccine
ANS- C
Q6=. Induction of passive–active immunity is useful in the prevention of which one of the following sets of two viral diseases?
(A) Hepatitis A and dengue
(B) Hepatitis B and rabies
(C) Influenza and varicella
(D) Mumps and yellow fever
(E) Rubella and measles
ANSWER- B
Q7= Protection of the unimmunized individual based on immunization of a sufficient number of other members of the population is a description of which one of the following?
(A) Active immunity
(B) Herd immunity
(C) Passive immunity
(D) Passive–active immunity
(E) Postexposure immunity
ANSWER-B
Q8=The retrovirus responsible for causing acquired immune deficiency syndrome is a member of the family
A. Orthomyxo-viridae
B. Paramyxo-viridae
C. Retro-viridae
D. Flaviviridae
Ans- C
Q9= The appearance of Koplik spots in the oral mucosa of patients is characteristic of infection with what viral agent?
A. Hepatitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Smallpox
Ans-B
Q10= Characteristics of this DNA hepatitis virus include infections spread by contaminated body fluids, 50- to 180-day incubation period, and chronic infections.
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HEV
Ans-B
Q11= Which of the following has been declared eradicated by the World Health Organization?
A. Smallpox
B. Human T cell lymphotropic virus
C. Hepatitis G virus
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
Ans-A
Q12= Rotavirus is the most common etiologic agent of
A. Acute nonbacterial encephalitis in children
B. Acute nonbacterial gastroenteritis in infants and young children
C. Chronic nonbacterial pharyngitis in children and young adults
D. Chronic nonbacterial retinitis in children
Ans-B
Q13= Kaposi sarcoma is associated with infection by
A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Hepatitis E vims
D. Human herpes virus 8
Ans-D
Q14= The molecular receptor of the virus causing acquired immune deficiency syndrome is
A. CD 4
B. CDS
C. Fc receptor
D. Complement receptor
Ans-A
Q15= The type of cell culture that best supports the growth of cytomegalovirus is
A. HeLa cells
B. HEp-2 cells
C. Human fibroblast cells
D. Primary monkey kidney (PMK) cells
Ans-C
Q16= Which of the following viruses is predominantly associated with respiratory disease and epidemics of keratoconjunctivitis?
A. Adenovirus
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
C. Norwalk virus
D. Rotavirus
Ans-A
Q17= A 25-year-old patient presented with multiple vesicles around the mouth. Material from the lesions was obtained by needle aspiration and inoculated to MRC-5 cells. After 1 day, the cytopathic effect included foci of "ballooned" and lysed cells. These observations suggest infection with
A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Herpes simplex virus
Ans-D
Q18= The Sabin polio vaccine uses which of the following?
A. Formalin-inactivated viruses
B. Attenuated viruses
C. Recombinant viral antigens
D. DNA
Ans-B
Q19= Which of the following is caused by a herpes virus?
A. Cold sores
B. Hemorrhagic fever
C. Polio
D. Rabies
Ans-A
Q20= Which of the following is not a general characteristic of a virus?
A. Obligate intracellular parasite
B. Does not produce ATP
C. Genome is surrounded by a protein coat
D. Can self-replicate in the appropriate host cell
Ans-D
Q21= The viral disease shingles, which causes extreme tenderness along the dorsal nerve roots and a vesicular eruption, has the same etiologic agent as
A. Rubeola
B. Vaccinia
C. Varicella
D. Variola
Ans-C
Q22= The etiologic agents of many common colds are RNA viruses that grow better at 33°C than at 37°C. These viruses are
A. Adenoviruses
B. Orthomyxoviruses
C. Paramyxoviruses
D. Rhinoviruses
Ans-D
Q23= Influenza A virus undergoes recombination events that produce new strains; this is referred to as
A. Antigenic drift
B. Antigenic shift
C. Reactivation
D. Viral latency
Ans-B
Q24= Negri bodies may be found in brain tissue of humans or animals infected with
A. Adenovirus
B. Filovirus
C. Measles virus
D. Rabies virus
Ans-D
Q25= Molluscum contagiosum virus is a member of the
A. Adenoviruses
B. Herpes viruses
C. Papovaviruses
D. Pox viruses
Ans-D
Q26= A clinical specimen is received in viral transport medium for viral isolation. The specimen cannot be processed for 72 hours. At what temperature should it be stored?
A. -80°C
B. -20°C
C. 4°C
D. 22°C
Ans-A
Q27= Arboviruses
A. Only infect humans
B. Often cause hepatitis
C. Typically infect lymphocytes
D. Are transmitted by arthropods
Ans-D
Q28= Mumps is characterized by an infection of the
A. Central nervous system
B. Parotid glands
C. Pancreas
D. Thymus
Ans-B
Q29= Which of the following hepatitis viruses is typically transmitted by the fecal-oral pathway?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HGV
Ans-A
Q30= Enteroviruses are most often associated with
A. Acute nonspecific febrile syndrome
B. Bronchitis and pneumonia
C. Lower respiratory tract infections
D. Upper respiratory tract infections
Ans-A
Q31= The "core window" refers to the time
A. During hepatitis B virus infection when anti-HBc IgM is the only serologic marker
B. During hepatitis B virus infection when HBc is the only serologic marker
C. During hepatitis A virus infection when HAc is the only serologic marker
D. During hepatitis C virus infection when the virus is latent
Ans-A
Q32= Human herpesviruses 6 and 7 are associated with a childhood disease called
A. Chickenpox
B. Measles
C. Roseola
D. Zoster
Ans-C
Q33= A baby was admitted to the hospital in February for dehydration due to severe
diarrhea. Cultures for bacterial pathogens revealed normal fecal flora at 24 hours.
Which of the following additional tests would be most appropriate given the case history?
A. Heterophile antibody test
B. Rotavirus antigen assay of stool specimen
C. McCoy cell inoculation for cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D. Urine microscopic analysis for presence of CMV cellular inclusion bodies
Ans-B
Q34= Rhabdovirus is most noted for causing infections of the
A. Central nervous system
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Lower respiratory tract
D. Upper respiratory tract
Ans-A
Q35= Jaundice is a common clinical symptom of which of the following viral diseases?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Rabies
D. Varicella
Ans-A
Q36= An 18-year-old male presents to his family physician complaining of sore throat and
fatigue. The patient is found to have a fever and swollen cervical lymph nodes.
A complete blood count and differential reveal lymphocytosis and many reactive
(atypical) lymphocytes. The physician should suspect an infection caused by
A. Adenoviruses
B. Epstein-Ban'virus
C. Parainfluenza virus
D. Varicella-zoster virus
Ans-B
Q37= The poliovirus, an RNA virus, is a(n)
A. Adenovirus
B. Coxsackie virus
C. Enterovirus
D. Rhinovirus
Ans-C
Q38= The virus that causes hepatitis B is characterized as a
A. Defective DNA virus requiring delta virus to complete its replication cycle
B. DNA virus utilizing reverse transcriptase
C. Nonenveloped DNA virus
D. Single-stranded RNA virus
Ans-B
Q39= Hepatitis C virus infections
A. Are commonly diagnosed during the acute stage
B. Are uncommon in the U.S.
C. Are most often acquired by contact with blood
D. Seldom results in chronic infection
Ans-C
Q40= Characteristic cytopathic effect associated with respiratory syncytial virus is
A. Giant multinucleated cells
B. Basophilic intranuclear inclusions
C. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
D. Shrunken cells with multilobed nuclei
Ans-A
Q41= The virus associated with warts is
A. Flavivirus
B. Morbillivirus
C. Mumps virus
D. Papillomavirus
Ans-D
Q42= RNA-dependent DNA polymerase is also called
A. Gyrase
B. Neuraminidase
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Transaminase
Ans-C
Q43= Coxsackie viruses are associated with
A. Gastrointestinal disease
B. Hepatitis
C. Myocarditis
D. The common cold
Ans-C
Q44= The tubular cells of the human kidney shed which of the following viruses for prolonged periods?
A. Adenovirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Rubella virus
Ans-B
Q45= The togavims known to produce fetal defects is
A. Influenza
B. Rotavirus
C. Rubella
D. Varicella
Ans-C
Q46= An 8-week-old infant was admitted to the hospital with symptoms of low birth weight, jaundice, and neurologic defects. Intranuclear inclusions were found in epithelial cells from the urine. The most likely diagnosis in this case would be infection by
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Epstein-Barr virus
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Rubella virus
Ans-A
Q47= The most common cause of cervical cancer is
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Papillomavirus
Ans-D
Q48= Select the statement that is correct concerning the influenza A viruses.
A. Humans are the only animal hosts for influenza A viruses.
B. Pandemics are characteristically produced by influenza A.
C. The incidence of infection peaks in the summer months.
D. They are DNA viruses.
Ans-B
Q49= An example of a virus associated with latent infections is
A. Influenza
B. Rotavirus
C. Rubella
D. Varicella-zoster
Ans-D
Q50= The use of cell cultures has enabled virologists to isolate and identify many clinically important viruses. However, because some viruses cannot be grown in cell cultures, these agents are best diagnosed by serologic testing. Such an agent is
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis C virus
C. Herpes simplex virus 2
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
Ans-B
Q51= Which of the following is associated with the rubella virus?
A. It is a DNA vims.
B. It is a member of the same taxonomic family as measles virus.
C. It is known to produce defects in fetuses during the early stages of pregnancy.
D. It is transmitted by an arthropod vector.
Ans-C
Q52= Which of the following is not a step involved in virus replication?
A. Attachment
B. Mitosis
C. Penetration
D. Release
Ans-B
Q53= Which of the following opportunistic diseases is not closely associated with acquired immune deficiency syndrome?
A. Cryptococcosis
B. Cryptosporidiosis
C. Malaria
D. Mycobacteriosis
Ans-C
Q54= Although there have been no natural cases of this serious disease in about 30 years,
which of the following is considered a potential bioterrorism disease
A. Dengue
B. Ebola hemorrhagic fever
C. Shingles
D. Smallpox
Ans-D
Q55= Poliovirus is a member of the family
A. Flaviviridae
B. Paramyxoviridae
C. Picornaviridae
D. Reoviridae
Ans-C
Q56= Which of the following has not been successfully used to detect viruses in clinical specimens?
A. Cytopathic effect
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C. Growth on selective agar media
D. Immunofluorescence
Ans-C
Q57=Which of the following diseases is not associated with herpes simplex virus?
A. Cold sores
B. Encephalitis
C. Genital herpes
D. Thrush
Ans-D
