Introduction To Hematology
Q1= Hematology encompasses the study of -
A. Blood components
B. Coagulation
C. Platelets
D. All
Ans= D
Q2= What is called of production Development and maturation of cellular elements of Blood
A. Leukopoiesis
B. Hematopoiesis
C. Both
D. None
Ans= B
Q3= How many maximum number of lobes in a Neutrophil
A.4
B.5
C.7
D.8
Ans= C
Q4= Anticoagulant that use in blood culture is?
A) fluoride.
B) EDTA.
C) citrate.
D) Sodium polyanthol sulphat(SPS)
Ans= D
Q5=Media for detection of hemolysis is.
A) blood agar.
B) neutral agar.
C) macconky.
D) all above
Ans= A
Q6= Mycobacterium named acid fast because?
A) stain easily.
B) once stained not decolorize by acid.
C) because of it is shape.
D) non of above.
Ans= B
Q7= What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?
A. Erythrocyte
B. Granulocyte
C. Lymphocyte
D. Thrombocyte'
Ans- A
Q8= What percentage of tissue located in the bone marrow cavities of adults is fat?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Ans- C
Q9= In an adult, what are the two best areas for obtaining active bone marrow by aspiration?
A. Vertebra, tibia
B. Sternum, vertebra
C. Anterior iliac crest, tibia
D. Posterior iliac crest, sternum
Ans- D
Q10= In the third month of gestation, what is the primary site of hematopoiesis?
A. Liver
B. Marrow of long bones
C. Spleen
D. Yolk sac
Ans- A
Q11= Programmed cell death is called
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Cellular senescence
D. Terminal differentiation
Ans- B
Q12=. In what area of the bone marrow does hematopoiesis take place?
A. Cords
B. Endosteum
C. Endothelium
D. Sinuses
Ans- A
Q13= The largest hematopoietic cells in normal bone marrow are
A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Megakaryocytes
D. Plasma cells
Ans- C
Q14=What is the average life span of a normal red blood cell?
A. 1 day
B. 10 days
C. 60 days
D. 120 days
Ans- D
Q15= The majority of iron found in an adult is a constituent of
A. Ferritin
B. Myoglobin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Peroxidase
Ans- C
Q16= A senescent red blood cell is one that has
A. Been hemolyzed
B. Lived its life span
C. Become deformed
D. Lost its mitochondria
Ans- B
Q17= Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of
A. DNA
B. Iron
C. Reticulura
D. RNA
Ans- A
Q18= The major adult hemoglobin requires the synthesis of alpha-globin chains and
A. Beta-globin chains
B. Delta-globin chains
C. Epsilon-globin chains
D. Gamma-globin chains
Ans- A
Q19= The major storage form of iron is
A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. Hemosiderin
D. Hemachromatin
Ans- A
Q20= Excessive extravascular red cell destruction is associated with
A. Hemoglobinemia
B. Bilirubinemia
C. Hemoglobinuria
D. Hemosiderinuria
Ans- B
Q21= Serum ferritin is a good indicator of the amount of
A. Cytochrome iron
B. Storage iron
C. Hemoglobin iron
D. Transferrin saturation
Ans- B
Q22= Which of the following is not characteristic of aplastic anemia?
A. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
B. Bone marrow hypoplasia
C. Absolute reticulocytopenia
D. Blood findings of pancytopenia
Ans- A
Q23= Which of the following is a true red blood cell aplasia?
A. Marrow replacement anemia
B. Fanconi anemia
C. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
D. Donath-Landsteiner anemia
Ans- C
Q24= An excessive accumulation of iron in body tissues is called
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Erythroblastosis
C. Megaloblastosis
D. Acrocyanosis
Ans- A
Q25= What is the most common cause of iron deficiency?
A. Bleeding
B. Gastrectomy
C. Inadequate diet
D. Intestinal malabsorption
Ans- A
Q26= Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for sickle cell anemia?
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Supportive therapy
C. Hyperbaric oxygen
D. Iron
Ans- B
Q27=Functionally, white blood cells are divided into
A. Granulocytes, nongranulocytes
B. Polymorphonuclears, mononuclears
C. Phagocytes, immunocytes
D. Granulocytes, lymphocytes
Ans- C
Q28= What is the largest white blood cell normally found in the peripheral blood?
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Lymphocyte
D. Monocyte
Ans- D
Q29= Which of the following factors is not associated with variations in the total white blood cell count?
A. Age
B. Exercise
C. Emotional stress
D. Sex
Ans- D
Q30=In which of the following are eosinophils not increased?
A. Gushing syndrome
B. Allergic disorders
C. Skin disorders
D. Parasitic infection
Ans- A
Q31=Which of the following is not associated with neutrophilia?
A. Staphylococcal pneumonia
B. Cm shing inj ury
C. Infectious hepatitis
D. Neoplasms (tumors)
Ans- C
Q32= What is the key diagnostic test for Hodgkin lymphoma?
A. Bone marrow biopsy
B. Lymph node biopsy
C. Spinal tap
D. Skin biopsy
Ans- B
Q33= Perl's Prussian blue is a stain used to detect
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Iron
D. Glycogen
Ans- C
Q34= Side angle scatter in a laser-based cell counting system is used to measure
A. Cell size
B. Cytoplasmic granularity
C. Cell number
D. Immunologic (antigenic) identification
Ans- B
Q35= A clotted EDTA tube can be used to perform a?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. Solubility test for hemoglobin S
C. Hematocrit
D. Platelet count
Ans- B
Q36= Which of the following tests could be performed on a hemolyzed blood sample?
A. Hemoglobin only
B. Hemoglobin and platelet count
C. RBC count and hematocrit
D. No results would be reportable.
Ans- A
Q37=The most likely cause of this hemolytic episode is
A. G6PD deficiency
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Ans- A
Q38= Lymphoid progenitor cells travel to which organ to become T lymphocytes?
a. Spleen.
b. Liver.
c. Thymus.
d. Kidney.
Ans- C
Q39= Which one of the following is a common side effect of oral iron supplementation?
a. Angina.
b. Peripheral neuropathy.
c. Constipation.
d. Brittle, spoon shaped nails (koilonychia).
Ans- C
Q40=Which one of the following is a feature of iron deficiency anemias?
a. Leukonychia.
b. Macrocytic, hypochromic red cells.
c. Raised serum ferritin.
d. Raised serum transferrin.
Ans- D
Q41= Bence-Jones protein is seen in which malignancy?
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
c. Chronic myeloid leukaemia.
d. Myeloma.
Ans- D
Q42= Which one of the following is a vitamin-K-dependent clotting factor?
a. Fibrinogen
b. Prothrombin
c. Clotting factor V
d. Clotting factor VIII
Ans- B
Q43= Which of the following will prolong the prothrombin time?
a. von Willebrand’s disease.
b. Haemophilia A.
c. Haemophilia B.
d. Warfarin therapy.
Ans- D
Q44= Which one of the following is a phagocyte?
a. Macrophage.
b. Basophil.
c. B cell.
d. T cell.
Ans- A
Q45= Which one of the following types of cell are the major constituents in pus?
a. Plasma cells.
b. Macrophages.
c. Mast cells.
d. Neutrophils.
Ans- D
Q46= Which one cell type can induce apoptosis of virally modified or cancerous cells?
a. Neutrophils.
b. Mast cells.
c. Eosinophils.
d. Natural killer cells.
Ans- D
Q47= Which one of the following is an acute phase protein?
a. Tumors necrosis factor alpha.
b. C-reactive protein.
c. Interferon gamma.
d. Interleukin-1.
Ans- B
Q48= Which antibody is important in the antiparasitic response?
a. IgG.
b. IgD.
c. IgM.
d. IgE.
Ans- D
Q49=Which immunoglobulin is the main immunoglobulin in the secondary immune response?
a. IgG.
b. IgE.
c. IgD
d. IgA.
Ans- A
Q50=Which antibody is a pentamer?
a. IgM.
b. IgG.
c. IgA.
d. IgE.
Ans- A
Q51=Rheumatoid factor is normally which one of the following?
a. IgM anti-IgG antibodies.
b. IgA anti-IgM antibodies.
c. IgE anti-IgG antibodies.
d. IgD anti-IgE antibodies.,
Ans- A
Q52= Best blood product to be given in a patient of multiple clotting factor deficiency with active bleeding is:
(A) Fresh frozen plasma
(B) Whole blood
(C) Packed RBCs
(D) Cryoprecipitate
Ans= A
Q53= What type of RBC are seen in chronic renal failure?
(A) Microcytic
(B) Macrocytic
(C) Normocytic
(D) None of the above
ANS- C
Q54 = Best method to access hemoglobin
(a) gasometric method
(b) Acid-hematin method
(c) Copper-Sulphate method
(d) Cyn-Meth-Hb method
ANS- D
Q55=Increase in Serum homocysteine levels seen in
(a) Iron deficiency Anaemia
(b) Megaloblastic Anaemia
(c) Sideroblastic Anaemia
(d) Acute Tubulav Necrosis
ANS- B
Q56= Hemolysis in G-6-P-D deficiency is precipitated by all except
(a) Dapsone
(b) Septran
(c) Quinine
(d) Penicillin
ANS= D
Q57 = Megaloblastic Anaemia is due to deficiency of
(a) Iron
(b) Vit B 12
(c) Vit A
(d) Vit D
ANS= B
Q58= Purpura is the manifestation of
(a) Anemia
(b) Leucopenia
(c) Thrombocytopenia
(d) Leucocytosis
ANS=C
Q59= The diagnosis of CLL (Chronic lymphocytic leukemia) is confirmed by:
a. Peripheral smear
b. Bone marrow aspirate and smear
c. Immunophenotyping
d. Cytogenetics
Ans- C
Q60= Cytogenetic abnormalities seen in chronic lymphocytic leukemia are all, except:
a. Trisomy 12
b. 14q+
c. del 13q14
d. 11p deletion
Ans= D
Q61=
