Chapter = 9
Clinical Parasitology and Routine Examination Of Feces
Introduction
All infectious agents are parasites that are dependent on any living organisms for nourishment growth and multiplication. the study of parasite that cause disease in men is called as medical parasitology. medical parasitology deals with those pathogenic organism which are bigger in size than bacteria and fungi most of them have a sexual has in their life cycle the organism that from which the parasite tax its food is called the host the host in which the sexual phase is seen is the called the definitive host the Asexual his take place in the intermediate host (secondary host) the intermediate host may act as a career for fresh infections a parasite that lives on its host such as tick is called an ectoparasites. a parasites that lives in its host such as a ameba or hookworm is called an endoparasite.
Q1. Enterobius vermicularis infection is usually diagnosed by finding
A. Eggs in perianal specimens
B. Larvae in perianal specimens
C. Larvae in feces
D. Eggs in the feces
Ans-A
Q2. Cysts are the infective stage of this intestinal flagellate.
A. Balantidium coli
B. Dientamoeba fragilis
C. Entamoeba coli
D. Giardia lamblia
Ans-D
Q3. Which of the following is typical in cysts of lodamoeba biitschlii?
A. A glycogen mass
B. Blunt chromatoidal bars
C. Four nuclei with large karyosomes
D. Many ingested bacteria
Ans-A
Q4. Which Schistosoma species has a large terminal spine?
A. S. haematobium
B. S. japonicum
C. S. mansoni
D. S. mekongi
Ans-A
Q5. Elephantiasis is a complication associated with which of the following?
A. Cysticercosis
B. Guinea worm
C. Hydatid cyst disease
D. Filariae
Ans-D
Q6. The disease most commonly associated with Acanthamoeba sp. is
A. Diarrhea
B. Keratitis
C. Liver abscess
D. Meningoencephalitis
Ans-B
Q7. Cysts of Giardia lamblia
A. Contain four nuclei
B. Are motile by flagella
C. Have an undulating membrane
D. Are rarely found in stool specimens
Ans-A
Q8. A free-living ameba that causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis is
A. Dientamoebafragilis
B. Entamoeba coli
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Naegleriafowleri
Ans-D
Q9. Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective for humans?
A. Cysticercus larva
B. Embryonated egg
C. Filariform larva
D. Rhabditiform larva
Ans-A
Q10. Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for humans?
A. Proglottid
B. Filariform larva
C. Rhabditiform larva
D. Embryonated ovum
Ans-D
Q11. Which of the following is the largest intestinal protozoa infecting humans?
A. Balantidium coli
B. Dientamoeba frag His
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Giardia lamblia
Ans-A
Q12. Hematuria is a typical sign of human infection caused by
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Schistosoma haematobium
Ans-D
Q13. Which of the following is the vector for Babesia?
A. Fleas
B. Lice
C. Ticks
D. Mosquitoes
Ans-C
Q14. Which of the following is the preferred anticoagulant for preparing blood smears
for diagnosing malaria?
A. EDTA
B. Heparin
C. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium fluoride
Ans-A
Q15. How many life cycle stages of Cestodes have
A. Four
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
Ans-C
Q16. Liver flukes that cause disease in humans.
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Fasciola hepatic
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Schistosoma
Ans-B
Q17. T-cells are produced from
a. Bone marrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. None of these
Ans-B
Q18= Vagabond's disease occurs in a patient due to heavy infection with
A- bed bugs
B- body lies
C- human fleas
D- storage mites
Ans-B
Q19. Blood-sucking vector may transmit:
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides
(b) Ancylostoma duodenale
(c) Strongyloides stercoralis
(d) Plasmodium
Ans-d
Q20. Which of the following parasite is transmitted by dog :
(a) Taenia saginata
(b) Hymenolepis nana
(c) Echinococcus granulosus
(d) Diphyllobothrium latum
Ans-C
Q21.Which of the following protozoa belongs to phylum Sporozoa?
(a) Giardia species
(b) Toxoplasma species
(c) Plasmodium species
(d) Entamoeba species
Ans-c
Q22.Mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica differs from Entamoeba coli by:
(a) Larger and uninucleated
(b) Smaller and binucleated
(c) Smaller and quadrinucleated
(d) Larger and quadrinucleated
Ans-c
Q23.Cysts of Entamoeba histolytica are formed in:
(a) Lumen of the large intestine
(b) Tissues
(c) Lumen of the small intestine
(d) Epithelium of large intestine
Ans-A
Q24.Diagnosis of which of the following parasite uses Entero-Test?
(a) Cyclospora species
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Giardia lamblia
(d) Dientamoeba fragilis
Ans-C
Q25. Which of the following parasite
doesn’t have a cyst stage?
(a) Enteromonas hominis
(b) Dientamoeba fragilis
(c) Giardia lamblia
(d) Chilomastix mesnili
Ans-B
Q26. How many pairs of flagella are present in the trophozoite of Giardia
lamblia?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Eight-
Ans-C
Q27. Giardia lamblia resides in:
(a) Sigmoid colon
(b) Colon
(c) Duodenum
(d) Vagina
Ans-C
Q28. Which is the most common cause of steatorrhea:
(a) Ascaris lumbricoides
(b) Giardia lamblia
(c) Entamoeba histolytica
(d) Enteromonas hominis
Ans-B
Q29. Vector for leishmaniasis:
(a) Sandfly
(b) Reduviid bugs
(c) Tsetse fly
(d) Anopheles mosquito
Ans-A
Q30. Old world leishmaniasis is caused by:
(a) Leishmania donovani
(b) Leishmania tropica
(c) Leishmania infantum
(d) All of the above
Ans-D
Q31. New World leishmaniasis is caused by:
(a) Leishmania donovani
(b) Leishmania braziliensis complex
(c) Leishmania tropica
(d) Leishmania major
Ans-B
Q32. Amastigote form of Leishmania donovani resides in the:
(a) Gastrointestinal tract of insect vector
(b) Salivary gland of mosquito
(c) Cells of reticuloendothelial system
(d) NNN culture media
Ans-C
Q33. Oriental sore is caused by:
(a) Leishmania mexicana complex
(b) Leishmania braziliensis complex
(c) Leishmania tropica
(d) Leishmania chagasi
Ans-C
Q34. Leishmania donovani can be cultivated in:
(a) Blood agar
(b) NNN medium
(c) Diamond’s medium
(d) RPMI 1640 medium
Ans-B
Q35. Chiclero’s ulcer is caused by:
(a) Leishmania mexicana complex
(b) Leishmania braziliensis complex
(c) Leishmania peruviana
(d) Leishmania chagasi
Ans-A
Q36. Espundia is caused by:
(a) Leishmania mexicana complex
(b) Leishmania braziliensis complex
(c) Leishmania peruviana
(d) Leishmania chagasi
Ans-B
Q37. Best animal model used for inoculation of Leishmania donovani?
(a) Hamster
(b) Guinea pig
(c) Rabbit
(d) Mouse
Ans-A
Q38. American trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease) is caused by:
(a) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
(b) Trypanosoma rangeli
(c) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
(d) Trypanosoma cruzi
Ans-D
Q39. Which is the infective form of the malaria parasite to man?
(a) Merozoite
(b) Sporozoite
(c) Trophozoite
(d) Gametocyte
Ans-B
Q40. Which is the infective form of the malaria parasite to mosquito?
(a) Merozoite
(b) Sporozoite
(c) Trophozoite
(d) Gametocyte
Ans-D
Q41. Which stage of the malaria parasite causes relapse?
(a) Sporozoite
(b) Trophozoite
(c) Merozoite
(d) Hypnozoites
Ans-D
Q42. Crescent-shaped or banana-shaped gametocytes are seen in infection with:
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plasmodium ovale
(d) Plasmodium malariae
Ans-B
Q43. Maurer’s dots in red blood cells are seen in infection with:
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plasmodium malariae
(d) Plasmodium ovale
Ans-B
Q44. Appearance of fever paroxysm every 72 hours (Quartan periodicity of malaria)
is seen in infection with:
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Plasmodium falciparum
(c) Plasmodium malariae
(d) Plasmodium ovale
Ans-C
Q45. Babesiosis is transmitted by bite of:
(a) Anopheles
(b) Sandfly
(c) Mite
(d) Tick
Ans-D
Q46. Maltese cross form is seen in?
(a) Babesiosis
(b) Plasmodium ovale
(c) Plasmodium malariae
(d) Toxoplasma
Ans-A
Q47.The main reservoir of Blantidium coli:
(a) Cattle
(b) Man
(c) Sheep
(d) Pig
Ans-D
48. The largest protozoa parasitizing human intestine?
(a) Trichomonas hominis
(b) Balantidium coli
(c) Entamoeba coli
(d) Isospora
Ans-B
