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Clinical Pathology Exam Answer Key, ASCP MLS and MLT Exam Question Answer, Lab Exam Mcqs

Clinical Pathology Exam Answer Key, ASCP MLS and MLT Exam Question Answer, Lab Exam Mcqs

 1. Specimens containing blood can be fixed by :

(A) Formalin

(C) Isopropanol

(B) Methanol

(D) Carnoy's fluid



2. Heparin prevents coagulation by :

(A) Chelating action

(C) Activation of plasmin

(B) Anti thrombin action

(D) Preventing aggregation of platelets


3. The amino acids from which creatinine is formed:

(A) Arginine, Glycine, Methionine 

(B) Glycine, Glutamic acid, Valine

(C) Methionine, Arginine, Glutamic acid 

(D) Arginine, Glutamic acid, Lysine



4. Which among the following diseases is not transmitted through blood transfusion?

(A) HIV

(B) Hepatitis B

(C) Filariasis

(D) Hepatitis C


5. Which among these radiations is not a cold method of sterilization?

(A) Gamma rays

(B) X-rays

(C) Cosmic rays

(D) Infrared radiation


6.Urobilinogen is absent in urine in which type of jaundice?

(A) Haemolytic

(B) Obstructive

(C) Hepatic

(D) Both (A) and (C)


7.The pH of Sabouraud's Dextrose Agar medium is:

(A) 5.8-6.0

(B) 4.2-5.2

(C) 5.4-5.6

(D) 6.0-6.4


8. Which among these is known as bad cholesterol?

(A) HDL

(B) LDL

(C) IDL

(D) VLDL


9. Pick up the statement that is not true with respect to Haemophilus influenzae :

(A) Growth on chocolate ngar medium 

(B) Pleomorphism

(C) Satellitism

(D) Resistance to refrigeration



10. Choose the method used for the estimation of blood urea :

(A) Liebermann-Burchard reaction 

(B) Jaffee reaction

(C) Berthelot reaction

(D) Van den Bergh reaction


11. Ketone bodies in urine is detected by which test?

(A) Benzedine test

(C) Fouchet's test

(B) Ehrlich's test

(D) Rothera's test


12. Trench fever is caused by :

(A) Bartonella quintana

(C) Orientia tsutsugamushi

(B). Coxiella burnetii

(D) Rickettsia prowazekii


13. The intestinal helminth belonging to the super family oxyuroidea is :

(A) Anchylostoma duodenale

(B) Taenia solium

(C) Enterobius vermicularis

(D) Ascaris lumbricoides



14. Renal threshold of glucose is:

(A) 180 mg/dl

(C) 170 mg/dl

(B) 200 mg/d1

(D) 160 mg/dl


15. Thrombocytes are formed from:

(A) Myeloblast

(C) Megakaryocyte

(B) Myelocyte

(D) Megaloblast


16. Which among the following agents is not used for decalcification of tissues?

(A) EDTA

(B) Chloroform

(C) Nitric acid

(D) Hydrochloric acid

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17. The advantages of RPR test over VDRL test include the following statements except:

(A) Serum or plasma can be used

(B) Results read with naked eyes

(C) Antigen is ready to use

(D) Requires inactivation of serum

18. Reticulin fibres are demonstrated by :

(A) PAS staining

(C) Gomori's staining

(B) Trichrome staining

(D) Mallory's PTAH staining


19. The earliest reliable indicator of myocardial infarction is:

(A) LDH

(B) CKMB

(C) SGOT

(D) SGPT


20.Auer rods may be found in:

(A) ALL

(C) CML

(B) AML

(D) CLL


21. In Sickle cell anaemia the abnormality found in the sixth position of the beta chain of

haemoglobin is:

(A) Glutamate is replaced by valine 

(B) Glutamate is replaced by lysine

(C) Valine is replaced by glutamate 

(D) Lysine is replaced by glutamate


22. Cryoprecipitate is infused to patient's having:

(A) Anaemia

(C) Sickle cell disease

(B) Leukaemia

(D) Haemophilia


23.The concentration technique not used for sputum in pulmonary tuberculosis :

(A) Hank's flocculation method

(B) Jungman's method

(C) Ehrlich's method

(D) Petroft's method

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24. PAS staining is used for the demonstration of:

(A) Collagen

(C) Melanin

(B) Neutral mucin

(D) Fibrin


25. The light chains in immunoglobulin's are:

(A) Kappa

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(B) Lambda

(D) Alpha


26. The ratio of sodium citrate to blood used for coagulation studies is:

(A) 1:9

(B) 1:4

(C) 1:6

(D) 1:10



27.In quality control precision indicates what?

(A) True value

(B) Same value for repeated analysis

(C) Measurement of a particular substance

(D) Measurement of minute quantity


28. Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells are seen in which type of anaemia?

(A) Iron deficiency anaemia

(B) Aplastic anaemia

(C) Haemolytic anaemia

(D) Megaloblastic anaemia


29. The examination of Duodenal contents is useful to detect :

(A) Larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis (B) Eggs of Fasciola species

(C) Giardia intestinalis

(D) All of these

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30.Which among these is a non-reducing sugar?

(A) Fructose

(B) Lactose

(C) Sucrose

(D) Maltose


31. Reticulocytes are increased in peripheral blood in:

(A) After acute blood loss

(B) Aplastic anaemia

(C) Haemolytic anaemia

(D) Both (A) and (C)


32. The reference method for glucose estimation is :

(A) Hexo kinase method

(B) Glucose oxidase method

(C) Ortho toluidine method

(D) Nelson-Somogyi method


33. In hypothyroidism :

(A) T., T. and TSH increases

(B) Ts and T. decrease, TSH increases

(C) T., T. and TSH decreases

(D) T. and T. increase, TSH decreases



34.Which enzyme activity is highly elevated in acute hepatic disease?

(A) Alanine transaminase

(B) Aspartate transaminase

(C) Amylase

(D) Creatine kinase

35. The disadvantage of using frozen sections is:

(A) Serial sections are not obtained

(B) Sections prepared within a few minutes

(C) Many histochemical methods use freezing microtomy

(D) Intra operative surgical consultation


36. Which of the following reagent is used to detect acetyl methyl carbinol?

(A) Kovac's reagent

(B) Ehrlich's reagent

(C) Barritt's reagent

(D) None of these


37.Barr body is absent in:

(A) Edward's syndrome

(C) Turner's syndrome

(B) Super female

(D) None of these

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38. In histopathological processing of tissues the sequence of processing is :

(A) Fixation, dehydration, clearing, infiltration

(B) Fixation, clearing, dehydration, infiltration

(C) Fixation, infiltration, clearing, dehydration

(D) Fixation, infiltration, dehydration, clearing


39. The normal level of CSF chloride is:

(A) 600-660 mg/dl

(C) 700-760 mg/dl

(B) 460-540 mg/dl

(D) 550-610 mg/dl


40. Coomb's reagent is:

(A) Anti human globulin

(C) Anti A serum

(B) Anti H serum

(D) Anti B serum


41. The end product of purine metabolism is:

(A) Urea

(C) Bilirubin

(B) Uric acid

(D) Creatinine



42. Rees-Ecker solution is used for counting :

(A) WBC's

(B) Eosinophil's

(D) Platelets

(C) Spermatozoa


43. The viral disease that is not sexually transmitted is:

(A) Rubella

(B) HIV infection

(C) Hepatitis B

(D) Molluscum contagiosum


44.Which among the following is an intracellular buffer?

(A) Carbonate buffer

(B) Phosphate buffer

(D) Acetate buffer

(C) Citrate buffer


45. Acid washed glass wares are used for the estimation of:

(A) Minerals

(B) Vitamins

(C) Hormones

(D) Enzymes


46. The viral disease transmitted by the vector Aedes aegypti is:

(A) Japanese encephalitis

(B) Yellow fever

(C) Dengue fever

(D) Both (B) and (C)


47. Among the following which solution has the highest osmotic pressure?

(A) IM solution of NaCl

(B) 1M solution of CaCl2

(C) IM solution of glucose

(D) 1M solution of KCI

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48.Which among the following coagulation factors is not Vitamin K dependent?

(A) Factor V

(B) Factor 11

(C) Factor VII

(D) Factor IX


49. The staining technique used for hormonal cytology is:

(A) MGG

(B) H and E staining

(C) Shorr's staining

(D) Giemsa staining


50. A plane-wedge type of knife is used for cutting :

(A) Frozen sections

(B) Ordinary paraffin sections

(D) All of these

(C) Serial sections


51. Hypo segmentation of neutrophils are associated with:

(A) Megaloblastic anaemia

(B) May Heggler anomaly

(C) Pelger-Huet anomaly

(D) Thalassaemia

52. Bombay blood group contains which antibody?

(A) Anti A

(B) Anti B

(C) Anti

(D) All of these


53. The infoctive stage of hookworm is :

(A) Embryonated ege

(B) Filariform larva

(C) Rhabditiform larva

(D) Microfilaria


54. What is the colour code of the hub of a 23G needle?

(A) Pink

(B) Violet

(C) Black

(D) Blue


55. Conversion of glycogen to glucose is called :

(A) Glycolysis

(C) Gluconeogenesis

(B) Glycogenolysis

(D) Glycogenesis


56. Which among the following is the gold standard of clearance tests?

(A) Inulin clearance

(B) Urea clearance

(C) Creatinine clearance

(D) Hippuric acid clearance



57. The recommended concentration of chlorine releasing compounds used for disinfecting

spillages of blood/body fluids is :

(A) 1000 ppm

(B) 10000 ppm

(C) 100 ppm

(D) 100000 ppm


58. Which among the following is not a transport medium?

(A) Pike's medium

(B) Buffered glycerol saline

(C) Stuart's medium

(D) Todd-Hewitt medium

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59. The past glucose content in blood can be estimated by measuring :

(A) Methylated haemoglobin

(B) Carboxylated haemoglobin

(C) Glycosylated haemoglobin

(D) None of these


60. For which among the following investigations can whole blood be used?

(A) Glycosylated haemoglobin

(B) Haemoglobin electrophoresis

(C) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase 

(D) All of these

61. Convert 90 mg% glucose to millimoles/L:

(A) 2.5 millimoles/L

(C) 6.0 millimoles/L

(B) 4.0 millimoles/L

(D) 5.0 millimoles/L


62. The highly infectious virus is :

(A) HIV

(B) Hepatitis B

(D) Hepatitis A

(C) Hepatitis C



63. Autoinfection occurs in:

(A) Enterobius vermicularis

(C) Hymenolepis nana

(B) Strongyloides stercoralis

(D) All of these

64. Which among the following is a true yeast?

(A) Blastomyces dermatitidis

(C) Cryptococcus neoformans

(B) Candida albicans

(D) Coccidioides immitis


65. The defect of RBC's in Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haematuria is their susceptibility to:

(A) Complement mediated lysis 

(B) Membrane abnormality

(C) Hb abnormality

(D) Enzyme deficiency


66. p24 antigen can be detected in the serum of a HIV patient during:

(A) Early stage of infection before the appearance of antibody

(B) Severe symptomatic disease

(C) None of these

(D) Both (A) and (B)


67. A medium for which the exact composition is known as:

(A) Synthetic medium

(B) Semi-defined medium

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these


68. For osmotic fragility test red blood cells are placed in:

(A) Hypertonie saline solution

(B) Buffered saline solution

(C) Hypotonic saline solution

(D) Normal saline solution


69. All of these are zoonotic diseases except:

(A) Pertussis

(C) Plague

(B) Brucellosis

(D) Tularemia


70. The resolving power of a microscope is directly proportional to :

(A) Refractive index of the medium 

(B) Numerical aperture

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Wavelength of light


71. Basophilic stippling of RBC's is common in :

(A) Lead poisoning

(C) Vitamin B12 deficiency

(B) Iron deficiency

(D) Both (A) and (C)


72. Alkaline phosphatase activity is elevated in:

(A) Bone disease

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(B) Obstructive jaundice

(D) None of these


73. Which enzyme action is inhibited by iodo acetate in glycolytic path way?

(A) Enolase

(B) Hexokinase

(C) Phospho fructokinase

(D) Glyceraldehyde 3.phosphate dehydrogenase


74. Heinz bodies are not associated with:

(A) GPD deficiency

(C) Megaloblastic anaemia

(B) Exposure to oxidative drugs

(D) Unstable Hb


75. HS production by bacteria can be detected by using :

(A) Lysine iron agar

(B) Triple sugar iron agar

(C) Kligler's iron agar

(D) All of these


76. Fiske-Subburow method is used for the estimation of:

(A) Uric acid in serum

(B) Inorganic phosphorous in serum

(C) Calcium in serum

(D) Copper in serum

69. All of these are zoonotic diseases except:

(A) Pertussis

(C) Plague

(B) Brucellosis

(D) Tularemia


70. The resolving power of a microscope is directly proportional to :

(A) Refractive index of the medium 

(B) Numerical aperture

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) Wavelength of light


71. Basophilic stippling of RBC's is common in :

(A) Lead poisoning

(C) Vitamin B12 deficiency

(B) Iron deficiency

(D) Both (A) and (C)


72. Alkaline phosphatase activity is elevated in:

(A) Bone disease

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(B) Obstructive jaundice

(D) None of these


73. Which enzyme action is inhibited by iodo acetate in glycolytic path way?

(A) Enolase

(B) Hexokinase

(C) Phospho fructokinase

(D) Glyceraldehyde 3.phosphate dehydrogenase


74. Heinz bodies are not associated with:

(A) GPD deficiency

(C) Megaloblastic anaemia

(B) Exposure to oxidative drugs

(D) Unstable Hb


75. HS production by bacteria can be detected by using :

(A) Lysine iron agar

(B) Triple sugar iron agar

(C) Kligler's iron agar

(D) All of these


76. Fiske-Subburow method is used for the estimation of:

(A) Uric acid in serum

(B) Inorganic phosphorous in serum

(C) Calcium in serum

(D) Copper in serum

77. The normal level of serum potassium is:

(A) 4.2-5.8 meq/L

(C) 3.0-5.8 meq/L

(B) 3.5-5.4 meq/L

(D) 135-145 meq/L


78. The method used for the quantitative culture of urine is :

(A) Standard loop method

(B) Dip slide method

(C) Pour plate method

(D) Dip spoon method


79. Which among these tests is not used to identify Streptococcus agalactiae?

(A) Aesculin hydrolysis

(B) CAMP test

(C) Hippurate hydrolysis

(D) Pigment production in Columbia agar


80. What is the percentage concentration of 1.5N NaOH?

(A) 3%

(B) 4.5%

(C) 6%

(D) 7.5%

ANSWER ---

1= D,    2=B,   3=A,   4=C,     5=D,     6=B,  7=C   8= B,

9=D   10=C    11=D    12=A    13=C   14=A   15=C   16=B

17=D   18=C  19=B  20=B   21= A   22=D   23=C   24=B

25=C  26=A  27=B   28=A   29=D   30=C   31=D  32=A

33=B   34=A   35=A  36=C  38=A  39=C  40=A  41=B

42=D  43=A  44=B   45=A   46=D   47=B   48=A   49=C  50=D

51=C   52=D  53=B  54= D  55=B   56=A   57=B  58=D  59=C

60=D   61=D  62=B   63=D   64=C   65=A   66=D   67=A  68=C

69=A   70=C   71=D   72=C   73=D   74= C   75=D   76=B   

77=B   78=C   79=A   80=C


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